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Dirac spinor in 1+1d, do the 2 components represent spin?

  1. Jan 8, 2015 #1
    The Dirac equation in 3+1 space-time yields spin, is this still true in 1+1d space-time? If not what do the 2 components of the spinor represent? Do we still have intrinsic spin in 1+1d space-time?

    Thanks for any help!
  2. jcsd
  3. Jan 8, 2015 #2


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    In one space dimension, angular momentum doesn't make too much sense, I'd say, because there are no rotations. It's a good question, what it represents! I've no spontaneous idea :-).
  4. Jan 8, 2015 #3
    Thank you for help! Would one place to look be to examine the current 2 vector, J_μ? That would involve the spinors?
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