Dirac's magnetic charge generalization of maxwell's equations?

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

Dirac's generalization of Maxwell's equations introduces the concept of magnetic charge density, which aims to address the asymmetry in the standard equations. Schwartz's "Principles of Electrodynamics" (1972) highlights the potential for a symmetric formulation, while Bo Thide's online book "Electromagnetic Field Theory" provides a more detailed exploration of this idea. The discussion raises questions about the experimental validation of Dirac's symmetrized equations and their relevance in modern electrodynamics, particularly in quantum electrodynamics.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Maxwell's equations
  • Familiarity with electromagnetic theory concepts
  • Knowledge of magnetic monopoles and charge quantization
  • Basic principles of quantum electrodynamics
NEXT STEPS
  • Research the experimental evidence for magnetic monopoles
  • Study the implications of Dirac's magnetic charge condition
  • Explore advanced topics in quantum electrodynamics
  • Examine the differences between standard and symmetrized Maxwell's equations
USEFUL FOR

Physicists, electrical engineers, and students of advanced electromagnetism interested in the theoretical and experimental aspects of magnetic charges and their implications in modern physics.

Peeter
Messages
303
Reaction score
3
I've seen two references to magnetic charge density as something that Dirac said would explain charge quantization. The first is in Schwartz's "Principles of Electrodyanamics" (Dover) where the author comments how it is unaesthetic that the two maxwell's equations aren't symmetric in form:

<br /> \partial_{\mu}F_{\mu\nu} = -4\pi j_v<br />

<br /> \partial_{\mu}G_{\mu\nu} = 0<br />

This book (1972), gives the idea mention, saying it would be nice to be able to write the second tensor equation as:

<br /> \partial_{\mu}G_{\mu\nu} = 4 \pi j_{\nu}^{(m)}<br />

but procedes without it after such a mention "since no monopoles have as yet been seen".

Another reference was in:

http://www.plasma.uu.se/CED/Book/

This is an online book "Electromagnetic field theory", by Bo Thide where it's given more than just a passing reference. However, reading this I'm unclear whether it's just a theoretical idea. Is there now experimental data that the Dirac symmetrized Maxwells' equations explains (perhaps more than just the monopole idea) that the standard form doesn't?

In more advanced (quantum electrodynamics?) or more modern treatments of electrodynamics does this idea have any place?
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Physics news on Phys.org
Peeter said:
... However, reading this I'm unclear whether it's just a theoretical idea. Is there now experimental data that the Dirac symmetrized Maxwells' equations explains (perhaps more than just the monopole idea) that the standard form doesn't?


Not farmiliar with the eqns., but I thought Dirac condition for the magnetic monopole doesn't symmetrize the charges but only quantizes,the Dirac condition being ...

eg = hc/4pi ...where g = magnetic charge


Creator :smile:
 
The equations I was referring to are: 1.50a-d from EMFT_Book.pdf here:

http://www.plasma.uu.se/CED/Book/EMFT_Book.pdf


<br /> \nabla \cdot E = \rho^e/\epsilon_0<br />

<br /> \nabla \times E = -\frac{\partial B}{\partial t} - \mu_0 j^m<br />

<br /> \nabla \cdot B = \mu_0 \rho^m<br />

<br /> \nabla \times B = \epsilon_0 \mu_0 \frac{\partial E}{\partial t} + \mu_0 j^e<br />
 
Last edited by a moderator:

Similar threads

  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
620
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
747
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
1K
  • · Replies 17 ·
Replies
17
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
4K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K