DISCRETE MATH: Binomial Theorem proof (using Corollary 2)

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving a property of binomial coefficients, specifically that for a positive integer n, the sequence of binomial coefficients exhibits a certain order. The original poster references Corollary 2 of the Binomial Theorem and expresses confusion about how to approach the proof, particularly regarding the implications of the ceiling and floor functions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss using the definition of binomial coefficients and explore how to prove inequalities involving terms with ceiling and floor functions. Questions arise about the implications of these functions on the proof.

Discussion Status

Some participants have suggested considering cases for even and odd values of n to address the proof. The original poster has made attempts to calculate specific binomial coefficients for various n values but seeks guidance on how to consolidate these findings into a coherent proof.

Contextual Notes

The original poster notes a requirement to attempt a solution before receiving assistance, which adds pressure to their exploration of the problem. There is also mention of the problem being labeled as 'easy,' which contributes to their frustration.

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Homework Statement



Show that if n is a positive integer, then 1\,=\,\binom{n}{0}\,<\,\binom{n}{1}\,<\,\cdots\,<\,\binom{n}{\lfloor\frac{n}{2}\rfloor}\,=\,\binom{n}{\lceil\frac{n}{2}\rceil}\,>\,\cdots\,>\binom{n}{n\,-\,1}\,>\,\,\binom{n}{n}\,=\,1

Homework Equations



I think this proof involves corollary 2 of the Binomial Theorem.

\sum_{k\,=\,0}^n\,(-1)^k\,\binom{n}{k}\,=\,0

The Attempt at a Solution



I have NO idea where to start a proof of this sort. This problem is labeled as 'easy', but I don't see the easiness yet. I know that an attempt at a solution is required before any assistance is rendered, but I have been staring at (and thinking about) this problem for two days now. I can't think of ANYTHING that is even remotely helping me to "show" this theorem.

I am not trying to have someone else do my homework or anything like that, I just need a pointer or two. If you don't believe me, look at my previous threads, all have detailed attempts and most were completed problems after help was given.

Thanks for your help in advance.
 
Last edited:
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have you tried using the definition
\binom{n}{k}=\frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}
to help?
 
Yeah, I used that up until the ceiling and floor functions in the middle. I can show that 1 is equal to the next term and that the term after that is indeed larger than the term equal to one. But what do I do with the ceiling and floor functions that come after? How to show that they are larger?
 
what can you and what can't you prove? you can't prove for the cases k > n/2 or k < n/2 or just the middle terms ?
 
By definition, \binom{n}{0}\,=\,1. Now, \binom{n}{1}\,=\,\frac{n!}{(n\,-\,1)!}. And by definition of the factorial function n!\,&gt;\,(n\,-\,1)!. Also, a divisor that is less than the dividend results in a quotient that is greater than one. This proves up to the point of \binom{n}{1}, and I think it can be extended up to the part where I am stuck. How do I work with the floor functions using the definition of binomial coefficient?

\binom{n}{\lfloor\frac{n}{2}\rfloor}
 
I guess I have to consider two cases of the center equality (the one using the ceiling and floor functions) in order to prove the whole inequality. There is a case of when n is even and the case of when n is odd. In the even case, the two terms are obviously equal.n = 4:

\binom{4}{\lfloor\frac{4}{2}\rfloor}\,=\,\binom{4}{2}\,=\,\frac{4!}{2!(4\,-\,2)!}\,=\,\frac{4!}{2!}\,=\,\frac{24}{2}\,=\,12

\binom{4}{\lceil\frac{4}{2}\rceil}\,=\,\binom{4}{2}\,=\,\frac{4!}{2!(4\,-\,2)!}\,=\,\frac{4!}{2!}\,=\,\frac{24}{2}\,=\,12Okay, but how do I prove anything about the odd n-values?

n = 5:

\binom{5}{\lfloor\frac{5}{2}\rfloor}\,=\,\binom{5}{2}\,=\,\frac{5!}{2!(5\,-\,2)!}\,=\,\frac{5!}{2!\,3!}\,=\,\frac{120}{12}\,=\,10

\binom{5}{\lceil\frac{5}{2}\rceil}\,=\,\binom{5}{3}\,=\,\frac{5!}{3!(5\,-\,3)!}\,=\,\frac{5!}{2!\,3!}\,=\,\frac{120}{12}\,=\,10n = 7:

\binom{7}{\lfloor\frac{7}{2}\rfloor}\,=\,\binom{7}{3}\,=\,\frac{7!}{3!(7\,-\,3)!}\,=\,\frac{7!}{3!\,4!}\,=\,\frac{5040}{144}\,=\,35

\binom{7}{\lceil\frac{7}{2}\rceil}\,=\,\binom{4}{4}\,=\,\frac{7!}{4!(7\,-\,4)!}\,=\,\frac{7!}{4!\,3!}\,=\,\frac{5040}{144}\,=\,35I guess that proves that in either case the two are equal! Now how do I combine it all into a concise proof?
 
Last edited:
do a case for even n and a case for odd n
 

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