Disprove a convergence question

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SUMMARY

The discussion revolves around proving that if the sequence \( A_n \) converges to 1, then \( (A_n)^n \) does not necessarily converge to 1. A counterexample is required to demonstrate that \( \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} (A_n)^n \neq 1 \) despite \( \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} A_n = 1 \). The key insight is that the limit of the base approaching 1 combined with the exponent approaching infinity creates an indeterminate form, specifically \( 1^{+\infty} \), which does not guarantee convergence.

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transgalactic
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i know that An->1

i need to prove that (An)^n ->1

but when i construct limit
lim (An)^n
n->+infinity

the base goes to 1 and the power goes to + infinity

that is not solvable

i get 1^(+infinity) which says that there is no limit
what do i do in this case in order to disprove that (An)^n->1

??
 
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All you need is a counterexample to show that
[tex]\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} (a_n)^n = 1[/tex] isn't true.

You need a sequence {a_n} whose limit is 1 but for which the limit above isn't 1.
 

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