gregmead
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then the line would have no slope because change in y would also be zero
Edit: read next post
Edit: read next post
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gregmead said:then the line would have no slope because change in y would also be zero
Moo Of Doom said:Since when is slope \frac{y_1}{x_1}-\frac{y_2}{x_2}? Isn't it \frac{y_1-y_2}{x_1-x_2}?
In that case, if the two x values are the same, then the slope is vertical. Vertical slope is orthogonal to zero slope, so you can hardly say that division by zero results in zero.