- #1

Andrew Wright

- 120

- 19

- TL;DR Summary
- If you re-arrange x=y to be x/y = 1, do you end up with an identical set after re-arrangement?

So the confusion here is that division by zero is often said to be undefined. So whereas, the point (0,0) certainly appears in the set of values where x=y, does the point (0,0) appear in the set of values where 1=y/x. Why or why not?

In other words are the set of points where x=y the same as the set of points where 1=y/x?

Does the answer depend on what assumptions you start off with about the nature of division by zero? If it is a "thing" who came up with it and what is it called?

In other words are the set of points where x=y the same as the set of points where 1=y/x?

Does the answer depend on what assumptions you start off with about the nature of division by zero? If it is a "thing" who came up with it and what is it called?