I need to show that f(x)=cexp(-cx) is the only solution to c-[integral from 0 to x](f(x)) = f(x). Is this trivial??? If not how would you suggest I go about showing that functions have unique derivatives (after taking into account constants). Thanks in advance for suggestions!(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

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# Do derivatives belong to unique functions?

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