I need to show that f(x)=cexp(-cx) is the only solution to c-[integral from 0 to x](f(x)) = f(x). Is this trivial??? If not how would you suggest I go about showing that functions have unique derivatives (after taking into account constants). Thanks in advance for suggestions!(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

# Do derivatives belong to unique functions?

Know someone interested in this topic? Share a link to this question via email,
Google+,
Twitter, or
Facebook

Have something to add?

- Similar discussions for: Do derivatives belong to unique functions?

Loading...

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**