Do derivatives belong to unique functions?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the uniqueness of solutions to the equation involving a function and its integral, specifically focusing on the function f(x) = cexp(-cx) and its relation to derivatives. The scope includes theoretical aspects of calculus and properties of functions and their derivatives.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions whether the equation f(x) = c - ∫₀ˣ f(t) dt is correctly stated, suggesting that f(x) = cexp(-cx) may not be a solution for all c.
  • Another participant proposes that the integral should be multiplied by c, framing the problem within the context of statistics and the relationship between probability density functions (pdf) and cumulative distribution functions (cdf).
  • A participant cites a theorem from calculus regarding the uniqueness of functions with the same derivative, stating that if f(x) and g(x) have the same derivative, they differ by at most a constant.
  • There is a follow-up inquiry about whether the established logic regarding derivatives holds if the function F(x) is only known to be right continuous, referencing properties of cumulative distribution functions.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the correctness of the initial equation and the nature of the solution. There is no consensus on whether f(x) = cexp(-cx) is the only solution, and the discussion remains unresolved regarding the implications of continuity on the uniqueness of derivatives.

Contextual Notes

Participants highlight potential limitations in the assumptions made about the functions involved, particularly concerning the continuity and differentiability of F(x) as a cdf.

rhuelu
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I need to show that f(x)=cexp(-cx) is the only solution to c-[integral from 0 to x](f(x)) = f(x). Is this trivial? If not how would you suggest I go about showing that functions have unique derivatives (after taking into account constants). Thanks in advance for suggestions!
 
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Is that equation really

[tex]f(x) = c - \int_0^x f(t) \, dt?[/tex]

Because f(x)=cexp(-cx) isn't a solution to this for all c.
 
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the integral should be multiplied by c as well. This is actually a stats problem...the entire question is to show when the hazard/failure rate is constant -> c=f(x) / (1-F(x)) where f=pdf, F=cdf. Its obvious that f(x)=cexp(-cx) is a solution to this. I just don't know how to show its the only solution.
 
The fact that "derivatives belong to unique functions" or, more correctly, that if f(x) and g(x) have the same derivative then f(x) and g(x) differ at most by a constant, is given in most calculus books and follows from the mean value theorem:

Lemma: Suppose f(x) is continuous on [a, b], is differentiable on (a, b), and f'(x)= 0 for all x in (a, b). Then f(x)= C (f(x) is a constant) for all x in (a,b).

Let x be any point in (a, b). By the mean value theorem, (f(x)- f(a))/(x- a)= f '(c) for some c between a and x. Since f'= 0 between a and b, f'(0)= 0 from which it follows that f(x)- f(a)= 0 or f(x)= f(a). That is, f(x) is equal to the number f(a) for all x between a and b and so f(x) is a constant there.

Theorem: If f(x) and g(x) are both continuous on [a, b], differentiable on (a, b), and f'(x)= g'(x) for all x in (a, b), then f(x)= g(x)+ C, a constant.

Let H(x)= f(x)- g(x). Then H(x) is continuous on [a,b] and differentiable on (a, b). Further, for all x in (a, b), H'(x)= f'(x)- g'(x)= 0 because f'(x)= g'(x). By the lemma, H(x)= f(x)+ g(x)= C for some number C. Then f(x)= g(x)+ C.
 
thanks...that makes sense. Do you think this logic still holds if we only know that F(x) is right continuous? This is one of the properties of a cdf.
 

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