It seems to me that we don't measure a particle because a particle doesn't have an objective existence independent of the wave function or does it? The wave function in this case would have to be real because you can't have probability without the underlying possibility of a specific outcome being real. So if I roll a dice, I may get a 1-6 but I can only get a 1-6 because these are real possibilities. If a particles wave function is spread out in a box, of course the particle itself isn't everywhere in the box but the wave function is which carries the possible outcomes that can occur. We also know the wave function can exist without a particle. It's just evolving according to Schrodinger's equation until somone or something decides to disturb it. So isn't it wrong to say we measure a particles x and shouldn't we say that you can measure the wave function which produces a particle which carries a possible quantum state of the wave function? Where am I going wrong?