I Do you believe that continuum is Aleph-2, not Aleph-1?

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The discussion centers on the belief that the continuum may be Aleph-2 rather than Aleph-1, referencing Woodin's work and the implications of his axioms. It argues that this view preserves the sequence of Aleph numbers while changing their assigned names, and emphasizes the power of quantification over forcings in set theory. The conversation touches on historical perspectives from Gödel and Cohen, who also doubted the continuum's cardinality being Aleph-1. Additionally, the role of topos theory in transitioning between different set theories is highlighted, suggesting a future direction for mathematical exploration. The conversation concludes with a consideration of the implications of these ideas for the understanding of cardinalities and their relationships.
  • #61
stevendaryl said:
That doesn't matter, but I assume it is in an informal system of first-order logic plus set theory. There is a distinction between doing first-order logic and proving things about first-order logic. Set theory typically is needed for the second, but not for the first.

Well, it shouldn't be difficult for you to give a reference where first-order logic is done without mentioning infinity, countability or sets then?
 
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  • #62
stevendaryl said:
That doesn't matter, but I assume it is in an informal system of first-order logic plus set theory. There is a distinction between doing first-order logic and proving things about first-order logic. Set theory typically is needed for the second, but not for the first.

An informal system? You are aware that there are theorems and proofs out there which say that "compactness theorem" is equivalent to "ultrafilter lemma" in ZF. Where are we proving this result? In your informal system?
 
  • #63
micromass said:
An informal system? You are aware that there are theorems and proofs out there which say that "compactness theorem" is equivalent to "ultrafilter lemma" in ZF. Where are we proving this result? In your informal system?

I would say yes, most mathematics is done using an informal system of set theory and first-order logic. It could be formalized within ZF, but that's a ton of work that most mathematicians wouldn't actually bother with.

But my point is that it is irrelevant what system you use to prove facts about ZF. There is a distinction between proving facts about ZF and proving theorems using ZF.
 
  • #64
micromass said:
Well, it shouldn't be difficult for you to give a reference where first-order logic is done without mentioning infinity, countability or sets then?

Are you saying that if an author mentions sets, then that proves that first-order logic requires sets? I doubt if anything written in mathematics or logic today would fail to mention sets, because the reader is most likely familiar with sets and using sets greatly clarifies material.

Anyway, I really don't know what you are talking about when you say that first order logic needs set theory. What does that claim mean to you?
 
  • #65
micromass said:
I see you conveniently ignored the necessity of countably many variables.

I wasn't ignoring that. You can specify what you mean by a variable without the notion of infinity. For example,

x is a variable
If V is a variable, then V' is a variable.

These two rules imply that we have variables x, x', x'', x''', etc. There are obviously infinitely many variables according to this specification, but you don't need to formalize the statement "There are infinitely many variables" in order to use variables.

What's an axiom schema then?

I thought I said what an axiom schema was. An axiom schema is a pattern such that an axiom is an instance of that pattern. For example, in the rules for propositional logic, there is an axiom schema for implies:

A implies (B implies A)


That isn't an axiom, but if you substitute sentences for A and B, then you get an axiom.
 
  • #66
OK, I see you are completely missing my point. I'm not really all that interested in this discussion, so I'm leaving. If anybody wants more information on my point of view, they can read Paul Cohen's "Set Theory and the Continuum Hypothesis".
 
  • #67
@stevendaryl , micromass is saying that in order to axiomatize logic, you first need some intuitive (informal, naive) understanding of sets. And I see nothing controversial about that.
 
  • #68
stevendaryl said:
but children learn to use natural numbers before they learn set theory.
To teach a kid to count 3 apples, you first need to convey the idea that those apples constitute a kind of single entity (that is, a set). That's why you teach the kid to count apples in a basket, or to count the fingers at the hand, but not to count apples and fingers together, because it's much harder for a kid to get the idea that fingers and apples may constitute a single entity. If you ask a 5 year old kid how many apples and fingers together do we have, it's very likely that you will confuse him. The confusion stems from the fact that the concept of set is needed for counting, and this particular set is too abstract for him to do the counting.

In fact, in the first grade of elementary school, they taught us sets before teaching us counting.
 
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  • #69
Demystifier said:
To teach a kid to count 3 apples, you first need to convey the idea that those apples constitute a kind of single entity (that is, a set). That's why you teach the kid to count apples in a basket, or to count the fingers at the hand, but not to count apples and fingers together, because it's much harder for a kid to get the idea that fingers and apples may constitute a single entity. If you ask a 5 year old kid how many apples and fingers together do we have, it's very likely that you will confuse him. The confusion stems from the fact that the concept of set is needed for counting, and this particular set is too abstract for him to do the counting.

In fact, in the first grade of elementary school, they taught us sets before teaching us counting.

Well, I think there is a distinction between understanding and performance. You can learn to do arithmetic (or prove theorems in first-order logic) without knowing anything about sets. I think that micromass is right that understanding probably requires some kind of spiral approach, where you learn some topics in a superficial way, then use your superficial understanding of those topics to develop a deeper understanding of advanced topics, which can lead to a deeper understanding of the original topics. So you learn a little bit of arithmetic, a little bit of logic, a little bit about sets, and then use that knowledge to get a deeper understanding of arithmetic, logic and sets, rather than learning one completely and then going on to the others.
 
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  • #70
I think naive logic is solid foundation contrary to naive set theory which is inconsistent. But even that inconsistency comes from the axiom of unrestricted comprehension, which is a "reflection" of boolean algebra into sets(so we can take any boolean predicate and form a set based on it). In some sense, naive logic is killing naive set theory, so logic comes first )
 
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