Does anyone know how to find radius of convergence for sin x and e^x

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SUMMARY

The radius of convergence for the Taylor series of both sin(x) and e^x is determined using the ratio test, which involves analyzing the coefficients of their respective series. The Maclaurin series for e^x is expressed as ∑_{n=0}^{∞} (x^n/n!), leading to a radius of convergence of negative infinity to positive infinity. The confusion arose from misapplying the ratio test, where the correct limit calculation yields zero, confirming the infinite radius of convergence. This discussion clarifies the proper application of the ratio test to find convergence for these functions.

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blursotong
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[sloved]Does anyone know how to find radius of convergence for sin x and e^x

We know that to find radius of convergence we use ratio test (ie lim {a_n+1} /{a_n})
Can this method be used for sin x and e^x? ( whose radius of convergence is -infinity and infinity)
if radius of convergence is -infinity<x< infinity right? it means when we use ratio test the result is zero?

but we see for e^x,
i get |e| when using ratio test, which implies that it diverge?

Im confused. Can anyone can help?
thanks.
 
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You are very confused. You have to use the ratio test on the coefficients of the Taylor series for e^x and sin(x). How do you get |e| for e^x?
 
cause i use lim (e^(n+1)/ e^(n)) and i got e?
do you mean i use the coefficient of taylor series for e^x = 1 + x + (x^2)/2 + ...
then e^(x+1) = 1 + (x+1) + (x+1)^2/2 +...
then divide ??
 
blursotong said:
cause i use lim (e^(n+1)/ e^(n)) and i got e?
do you mean i use the coefficient of taylor series for e^x = 1 + x + (x^2)/2 + ...
then e^(x+1) = 1 + (x+1) + (x+1)^2/2 +...
then divide ??

No, use the general term in whatever series you're investigating. For ex, the Maclaurin series is
\sum_{n = 0}^{\infty} \frac{x^n}{n!}
 
wow..thats a great hint.
so its lim of [ {(x+1)^n /(n+1)!} * {(n!)/(x)^n} ] which gives lim {x/ (n+1} and when n tends to infinity the limit becomes zero ...so the radius of convergence is - infinity to + infinity??
 
blursotong said:
wow..thats a great hint.
so its lim of [ {(x+1)^n /(n+1)!} * {(n!)/(x)^n} ] which gives lim {x/ (n+1} and when n tends to infinity the limit becomes zero ...so the radius of convergence is - infinity to + infinity??

That's it. If you meant to write x^(n+1) in the numerator instead of (x+1)^n.
 
opps..haha..yup..
thanks a lot for your help!
anw, can you help me in another multiple integration question too?
no one replied yet=(
 

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