I did find this result in the book cited before:
(Theorem 5.6.12) Let X1, ..., Xn be independent continuous random variables and let g1, ..., gn be regular functions. Then g1(X1), ..., gn(Xn) are independent random variables, under a certain definition of regularity, which I think [tex]y \mapsto 1/y[/tex] satisfies.
If you want I can replicate the proof.