MHB Does expression equal 0 when value approaches 0?

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When a value in an expression approaches 0, it does not automatically mean the entire expression equals 0. For example, in the limit $\lim_{{z}\to{q}} z ln(z) f(z)$, if $\lim_{{z}\to{q}}f(z) = 0$, the limit of the entire expression may not equal 0 due to the potential for indeterminate forms like $0 \times \infty$. To determine the limit of a product, both individual limits must exist for the product limit to be valid. Therefore, careful analysis is required to evaluate limits involving expressions approaching zero. Understanding these concepts is crucial for accurate limit evaluations in calculus.
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If anyone value in an expression is approaching 0, does the entire expression equal 0?

So for example, for the limit $\lim_{{z}\to{q}} z ln(z) f(z)$. If $\lim_{{z}\to{q}}f(z) = 0$, then does $\lim_{{z}\to{q}} z ln(z) f(z)$ equal 0?
 
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Not necessarily. There is (at least) the indeterminate form $0\times\infty$ to consider.
 
Yes, suppose we have:

$$L=\lim_{x\to a}\left(f(x)\cdot g(x)\right)$$

Now, in order to write:

$$L=\lim_{x\to a}\left(f(x)\right)\cdot\lim_{x\to a}\left(g(x)\right)$$

We require that both $$\lim_{x\to a}\left(f(x)\right)$$ and $$\lim_{x\to a}\left(g(x)\right)$$ exist.
 
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