Does Integral Transformation Apply in Equality of Modified Bessel Functions?

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Change of variables for integral

Homework Statement



Determine whether the following equality holds:

[itex]\displaystyle\int_0^{\infty} \frac{e^{-\dfrac{(x^2+4z^2)}{4z}}}{2z} \, \mathrm{d}z = \displaystyle\int_0^{\infty} \frac{e^{-\dfrac{(1+z^2)x}{2z}}}{2z} \, \mathrm{d}z, \forall x,z \in \mathbb R_+[/itex]

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I obtained the first integral after fiddling around with the integral

[itex]K_0(x) := \displaystyle\int_0^{\infty} e^{-x\cdot\cosh{z}} \, \mathrm{d}z[/itex]

using the substitution [itex]\tau := \dfrac{xe^z}{2}[/itex]. Note that [itex]K_0(x)[/itex] is a modified Bessel function of the second kind of order 0. The second integral was something I came across after playing around with Rohatgi's "product convolution" integral for independent exponential random variables for a while. Mathematica claims that the second integral is also [itex]K_0(x)[/itex], and numerical integration seems to show that the original equality holds. The integrals look similar enough that some simple transformation seems relevant, but I haven't managed to find one yet.

Obviously, determining how Mathematica concluded that the second integral is [itex]K_0(x)[/itex] would be helpful, too.

Hints?
 
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Substituting [itex]u=2z[/itex] in the first integral yields

[itex]\displaystyle\int_0^{\infty} \frac{e^{-\dfrac{(x^2+4z^2)}{4z}}}{2z} \, \mathrm{d}z = \displaystyle\int_0^{\infty} \frac{e^{-\dfrac{(x^2+u^2)}{2u}}}{2u} \, \mathrm{d}u[/itex].

Not bad! I'll try out some more elementary transformations tomorrow. Thanks!
 
SteamKing said:
If u = 2z, the lower denominator of the transformed integral (originally 2z) should be u rather than 2u.

Well, maybe I'm too tired, but isn't [itex]\mathrm{d}z=\dfrac{\mathrm{d}u}{2}[/itex]?