Does Integral Transformation Apply in Equality of Modified Bessel Functions?

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around determining the validity of an equality involving two integrals that relate to modified Bessel functions, specifically K_0(x). The integrals are expressed in terms of variables x and z, both belonging to the positive real numbers.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to manipulate the first integral using a change of variables and relates it to the modified Bessel function K_0(x). Some participants suggest substituting a simple multiple of z and explore the implications of this substitution on the integral's form.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, exploring transformations and questioning the correctness of their manipulations. There is recognition of the need to clarify the relationship between the integrals and the modified Bessel function, with some productive suggestions being made regarding variable substitutions.

Contextual Notes

There is an ongoing discussion about the correctness of the transformations applied to the integrals, particularly concerning the differential elements and the denominators after substitution. Participants are also considering the implications of numerical integration results and the role of Mathematica in confirming the equality.

Combinatus
Messages
40
Reaction score
1
Change of variables for integral

Homework Statement



Determine whether the following equality holds:

\displaystyle\int_0^{\infty} \frac{e^{-\dfrac{(x^2+4z^2)}{4z}}}{2z} \, \mathrm{d}z = \displaystyle\int_0^{\infty} \frac{e^{-\dfrac{(1+z^2)x}{2z}}}{2z} \, \mathrm{d}z, \forall x,z \in \mathbb R_+

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I obtained the first integral after fiddling around with the integral

K_0(x) := \displaystyle\int_0^{\infty} e^{-x\cdot\cosh{z}} \, \mathrm{d}z

using the substitution \tau := \dfrac{xe^z}{2}. Note that K_0(x) is a modified Bessel function of the second kind of order 0. The second integral was something I came across after playing around with Rohatgi's "product convolution" integral for independent exponential random variables for a while. Mathematica claims that the second integral is also K_0(x), and numerical integration seems to show that the original equality holds. The integrals look similar enough that some simple transformation seems relevant, but I haven't managed to find one yet.

Obviously, determining how Mathematica concluded that the second integral is K_0(x) would be helpful, too.

Hints?
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
Try substituting a simple multiple of z.
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: 1 person
Substituting u=2z in the first integral yields

\displaystyle\int_0^{\infty} \frac{e^{-\dfrac{(x^2+4z^2)}{4z}}}{2z} \, \mathrm{d}z = \displaystyle\int_0^{\infty} \frac{e^{-\dfrac{(x^2+u^2)}{2u}}}{2u} \, \mathrm{d}u.

Not bad! I'll try out some more elementary transformations tomorrow. Thanks!
 
If u = 2z, the lower denominator of the transformed integral (originally 2z) should be u rather than 2u.
 
SteamKing said:
If u = 2z, the lower denominator of the transformed integral (originally 2z) should be u rather than 2u.

Well, maybe I'm too tired, but isn't \mathrm{d}z=\dfrac{\mathrm{d}u}{2}?
 
Combinatus said:
Well, maybe I'm too tired, but isn't \mathrm{d}z=\dfrac{\mathrm{d}u}{2}?

You are correct.
 

Similar threads

Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
Replies
12
Views
5K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K