hivesaeed4
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Has anybody got any idea as to how to prove that Ʃ 1/(n(log(n))^p) converges? (where p>1)
hivesaeed4 said:Has anybody got any idea as to how to prove that Ʃ 1/(n(log(n))^p) converges? (where p>1)
DonAntonio said:First way, the integral test: [itex]\int_2^\inf \frac{1}{x\log^px} dx=\frac{\log^{1-p}(x)}{1-p}|_2^\inf \rightarrow \frac{log^{1-p}(2)}{p-1}[/itex] .
Second way, Cauchy's Condensation test: taking [itex]n=2^k[/itex] , the series's general term is [itex]\frac{1}{2^kk^p\log^p(2)}[/itex] , so multiplying this by [itex]2^k[/itex] we get [itex]\frac{1}{k^p\log^p(2)}[/itex] , which is a multiple of the series of [itex]\frac{1}{k^p}[/itex] , which we know converges for [itex]p>1[/itex] .
DonAntonio