Does Splitting a Divergent Series Affect Its Infinity Sum?

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The discussion centers on the implications of splitting a divergent series, specifically addressing the Archimedean definition of divergence. It is established that if the series \(\sum_{i=1}^{\infty} x_{i}\) diverges to infinity, then at least one of the sub-series \(\sum_{i=1}^{\infty} x_{2i}\) or \(\sum_{i=1}^{\infty} x_{2i+1}\) must also diverge. An example is sought where \(\sum_{i=1}^{\infty} x_{i}\) diverges while \(\sum_{i=1}^{\infty} x_{2i}\) converges, highlighting the complexity of divergent series.

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(1) Using the Archimedean definition of divergence, prove that if [itex]\sum_{i=1}^{\infty }x_{i}[/itex] diverges to infinity, then so does either [itex]\sum_{i=1}^{\infty }x_{2i}[/itex] or [itex]\sum_{i=1}^{\infty }x_{2i+1}[/itex].

(2) Show an example where [itex]\sum_{i=1}^{\infty }x_{i}[/itex] diverges to infinity but [itex]\sum_{i=1}^{\infty }x_{2i}[/itex] does not.

So this is what I have for (1):

If [itex]\sum_{i=1}^{\infty }x_{i}[/itex] diverges then for all N, there is a number m such that [itex]N < \sum_{i=1}^{\infty }x_{i}[/itex] diverges for all [itex]k\geq m[/itex]. Then, [itex]\lim_{k \to \infty }\left | \frac{x_{k+1}}{x_{k}} \right | > 1[/itex] or [itex]\lim_{k \to \infty }\left | \frac{x_{k+1}}{x_{k}} \right | = \infty[/itex] and [itex]\lim_{k \to \infty }\left | \frac{x_{k+1}}{x_{k}} \right |[/itex] will become larger than 1 at some point. There exists an m such that [itex]\left | \frac{x_{k+1}}{x_{k}} \right | > 1[/itex] when [itex]k\geq m[/itex]. This means that when [itex]k\geq m[/itex], [itex]x_{k} < x_{k+1}[/itex] and [itex]\lim_{k \to \infty }x_{k} \neq 0[/itex]. [itex]x_{k} < x_{k+1}[/itex] implies that either [itex]x_{k} < x_{2k}[/itex] or [itex]x_{k} < x_{2k+1}[/itex], depending on whether or not the series is alternating. So either [itex]\sum_{i=1}^{k }x_{i} < \sum_{i=1}^{k }x_{2i}[/itex] or [itex]\sum_{i=1}^{k }x_{i} < \sum_{i=1}^{k }x_{2i+1}[/itex], and we have a number m such that [itex]N < \sum_{i=1}^{k }x_{i} < \sum_{i=1}^{k }x_{2i}[/itex] or [itex]N < \sum_{i=1}^{k }x_{i} < \sum_{i=1}^{k }x_{2i+1}[/itex] for all [itex]k\geq m[/itex]. Therefore, [itex]\sum_{i=1}^{\infty }x_{2i}[/itex] or [itex]\sum_{i=1}^{\infty }x_{2i+1}[/itex] diverges.

Is this right?

I can't think of an example for (2). Any help?
 
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I don't seem to understand the first line of your proof, but I think that's my fault: I've never heard of the "archimedean definition of divergence", so never mind me.

But I wanted to comment on (2): it's always handy to think of the most extreme case, i.e. one where [itex]\sum x_{2i}[/itex] is zero, what's an obvious candidate? Use the left-over freedom to construct a divergence sequence.
 
Thanks.

Can anyone look over my proof and tell me if there are any logical errors?
 

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