Does $\sqrt{n!+n}-\sqrt{n!} > 1$ for Some Integer n?

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Is there an integer n such that

[tex]\sqrt{n!+n}-\sqrt{n!} > 1[/tex]

?
 
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You may find that the approximation

[tex]\sqrt{n!+n} = \sqrt{n!}\sqrt{1+n/n!} = \sqrt{n!}\,\Big(1+\frac{1}{2(n-1)!}+\cdots\Big)[/tex]

is useful.
 
Treadstone 71 said:
Is there an integer n such that

[tex]\sqrt{n!+n}-\sqrt{n!} > 1[/tex]

?

Your function appears to have an absolute maximum (for positive integers, anyway) somewhere between n=1 and n=3 (near n=2 perhaps). The value of the function at n=2 is [tex]2- \sqrt2[/tex] which is about 0.585786 <1. So I would say no. Unless n is negative. I haven't a clue how to calculate it in that case.

-Dan
 
Yes there is indeed a max < 1, after which it tends to 0, very, very rapidly.

Too bad, I was hoping to disprove Andrica's conjecture.
 
The simplest way to see this, is to first multiply with the conjugate expression:
[tex]\sqrt{n!+n}-\sqrt{n!}=\frac{(\sqrt{n!+n}+\sqrt{n!})(\sqrt{n!+n}-\sqrt{n!})}{\sqrt{n!+n}+\sqrt{n!}}\leq\frac{n}{2\sqrt{n!}}[/tex]
One can easily prove the proposition from this bound:
For any n>3, we have
[tex]\frac{n+1}{2\sqrt{(n+1)!}}=\frac{n}{2\sqrt{n!}}\frac{1+\frac{1}{n}}{\sqrt{n+1}}<\frac{n}{2\sqrt{n!}}\frac{2}{2}=\frac{n}{2\sqrt{n!}}[/tex]
I.e, the sequence is decreasing.
 
Last edited:
arildno said:
The simplest way to see this, is to first multiply with the conjugate expression:
[tex]\sqrt{n!+n}-\sqrt{n!}=\frac{(\sqrt{n!+n}+\sqrt{n!})(\sqrt{n!+n}-\sqrt{n!})}{\sqrt{n!+n}+\sqrt{n!}}\leq\frac{n}{2\sqrt{n!}}[/tex]
One can easily prove the proposition from this bound:
For any n>3, we have
[tex]\frac{n+1}{2\sqrt{(n+1)!}}=\frac{n}{2\sqrt{n!}}\frac{1+\frac{1}{n}}{\sqrt{n+1}}<\frac{n}{2\sqrt{n!}}\frac{2}{2}=\frac{n}{2\sqrt{n!}}[/tex]
I.e, the sequence is decreasing.
I am not very sure that I understand your post correctly, but do you mean:
[tex]\sqrt{(n + 1)! + (n + 1)} - \sqrt{(n + 1)!} \leq \frac{n + 1}{2 \sqrt{(n + 1)!}} < \frac{n}{2 \sqrt{n!}} \geq \sqrt{n!+n}-\sqrt{n!}[/tex]. And you conclude that:
[tex]\sqrt{(n + 1)! + (n + 1)} - \sqrt{(n + 1)!} \leq \sqrt{n! + n} - \sqrt{n!}[/tex].
Is that reasonable?
Am I missing something?
 
Hmm, no.
Multiplying out the numerator, we have the identity:
[tex]\sqrt{n!+n}-\sqrt{n!}=\frac{n}{\sqrt{n!+n}+\sqrt{n!}}\leq\frac{n}{2\sqrt{n!}}[/tex]
This holds for ANY n.
Thus, if you can show that this bound is always less than 1 for any n, then it follows that your original difference expression must also be less than 1 for any n.
 
arildno said:
Hmm, no.
Multiplying out the numerator, we have the identity:
[tex]\sqrt{n!+n}-\sqrt{n!}=\frac{n}{\sqrt{n!+n}+\sqrt{n!}}\leq\frac{n}{2\sqrt{n!}}[/tex]
This holds for ANY n.
Thus, if you can show that this bound is always less than 1 for any n, then it follows that your original difference expression must also be less than 1 for any n.
Whoops, srry for misinterpreting your post. :redface:
Should've read it more carefully. :blushing: