Does the following matrix have an inverse?

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The discussion revolves around determining if the matrix N = [i, 1; -1, i] has an inverse. The user initially attempts to find the inverse by setting up equations based on the product of N and its supposed inverse equating to the identity matrix. A key point raised is that an inverse exists only if the determinant of N is non-zero. Participants suggest using the determinant to assess invertibility and applying the algorithm for computing inverses for a definitive answer. The conversation emphasizes the importance of correctly calculating the determinant and following through with the inverse calculation.
frankR
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N= [i,1;-1,i]

I used this theorem: N N-1 = In

Thus:

[i,1;-1,i]*[a,b:c,d]=[1,1;1,1]

I then found:

ia+c=1
ib+d=1
-a+ic=1
-b+id=1

Can I conclude an inverse does not exist. If so, how?

If not, what do I do?


Thanks,

Frank
 
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I2 = [1, 0; 0, 1]


What theorems have you learned about invertible matrices? (e.g. have you learned anything about how to tell if a matrix is invertible based on its determinant)


Or, you could apply the algorithm for computing inverses and see if you get an answer or if its impossible.
 
Originally posted by Hurkyl


Or, you could apply the algorithm for computing inverses and see if you get an answer or if its impossible.

I just found this:

N-1 exists only if:

det(NN-1 != 0

I'm a little rusty on my linear algebra, plus I got a concusion yesterday.
 
frankR,
Hurkyl has told you what I2 is, because you got that wrong. Just redo your calculation using Hurkyl's hint and you should be able to answer this easily.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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