Undergrad Does the incompleteness theorem apply to physics at all?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the implications of Gödel's Incompleteness Theorem for physics, asserting that the theorem indicates the existence of undecidable propositions within physical theories. It emphasizes that while physics has an axiomatic structure, it is not always explicitly defined, particularly in Quantum Mechanics where postulates serve as axioms. The conversation suggests that complete explanations of the universe may require transcending the system itself, akin to a "gods-eye" view. Additionally, it highlights that as scientific fields evolve, new axioms emerge to fill gaps left by previous laws, yet new gaps will always arise.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Gödel's Incompleteness Theorem
  • Familiarity with axiomatic structures in mathematics and physics
  • Basic knowledge of Quantum Mechanics and its postulates
  • Awareness of logical systems and their limitations
NEXT STEPS
  • Research the implications of Gödel's Incompleteness Theorem in mathematical logic
  • Explore the axiomatic foundations of Quantum Mechanics
  • Study models in cosmology that adopt a "gods-eye" perspective
  • Read the paper on the implications of incompleteness for physics available at arxiv.org
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Mathematicians, physicists, and philosophers interested in the foundational limits of scientific theories and the relationship between mathematics and physical reality.

benorin
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I have been curious for some time, does the incompleteness theorem of mathematics have any consequences in physics? In order that I may understand your response you should know I'm was a senior math major at the university when last I was in school and my only physics background is the standard 3 sequence classes of calc-based physics I kinda remember. I'm not not sure our physics is even compatible with the axiomatic structure required by the hypotheses of the incompleteness theorem, but I'd wager if it were the theorem might imply something nifty about physical reality.
 
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Physics has an axiomatic structure, it's just not always laid out plainly to see. In Quantum Mechanics it tends to be set out plainly as a list of 'postulates', which is just another word for axiom. In other physical disciplines the axioms are not so commonly all lined up in one neat location, but they are still there. In additional to the physical axioms, the axioms of set theory are needed, to enable the use of mathematics. Since those axioms are rich enough to allow description of the natural numbers and the operations of addition, subtraction and order comparison, Godel Incompleteness Theorem applies, and it tells us that there are propositions in any physical theory that are undecidable - ie are meaningful but can neither be proven true nor false. What it doesn't tell us is whether those are interesting and significant propositions, or just very artificial ones with no particular physical relevance, like the proposition constructed in Godel's theorem.

My guess is that, if not Godel's theorem itself, something that uses the same sort of self-referential arguments implies that physics can never explain everything interesting about the universe. In very, very hand-wavy terms, it seems to me that something can only be completely explained from the outside. So if we want to explain the universe (or any other system) in its entirety, we need to do so in terms of principles that in some way transcend the system. If there were pan-dimensional beings (perhaps shades of the colour blue like in H2G2) looking at our universe from outside, maybe they could explain it, but then - as with Godel's theorem - they could not explain the higher-dimensional world that they inhabited, and in which our spacetime was embedded.

No matter how many levels up we go, we'd never find a being that could explain everything.

But as I said, this is speculation. It might be that the only propositions that are undecidable are physically uninteresting statements that are loosely analogous to the Godel statement 'this proposition is not provable in this logic'.
 
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Godel's Theorem applies to any logical system with axioms.
Wherever reasoning in any field relies on that, the theorem applies.

It does not imply anything "iffy" about physical reality ... you can see this if you compare what the theorem says vs how science is done.
The hand-wavey version goes a bit like this: Generally, at any stage in the development of a scientific field of study there will be things that the known "laws", taken as axioms, cannot explain ... usually the laws themselves. However, as the field develops, new laws/axioms are discovered which allow those gaps to get filled but leaving new gaps elswhere.

Incompletness tells us what sort of models to build out of logic.
You'll notice that cosmology frequently appeals to models that take a "gods-eye" view of the universe?
If the goal is to completely describe the Universe in one logical model, then you pretty much need to take that view.

That's the hand-wavey version... less hand-wavey:
https://arxiv.org/pdf/physics/0612253.pdf - discussing implications for physics
http://www.nature.com/news/paradox-...cs-makes-physics-problem-unanswerable-1.18983 - providing an example
 
I do not have a good working knowledge of physics yet. I tried to piece this together but after researching this, I couldn’t figure out the correct laws of physics to combine to develop a formula to answer this question. Ex. 1 - A moving object impacts a static object at a constant velocity. Ex. 2 - A moving object impacts a static object at the same velocity but is accelerating at the moment of impact. Assuming the mass of the objects is the same and the velocity at the moment of impact...

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