Is the Domain of an Antiderivative Always a Subset?

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SUMMARY

The domain of an antiderivative is not always equal to the domain of the original function but is always a subset. In the discussion, it is established that if a function \( g \) has a derivative \( h \), then \( \text{dom}(h) \subseteq \text{dom}(g) \). For example, the function \( f(x) = |x| \) has a domain of all real numbers, while its derivative \( f'(x) \) has a domain of all real numbers except 0. This illustrates that while the domain of the derivative is a subset, it does not imply equality.

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Isn't the domain of the derivative of a function a subset of the domain of the function itself?
Does this mean that the domain of an integrand is always a subset of the corresponding indefinite integral?
 
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We know that if a function ## g ## has a derivative ## h ##, then ##dom(h)\subseteq dom(g)##.

Let ## f ## be our function and ## F ## be any of its corresponding antiderivatives. Then since ## F ## has a derivative ## f ##, it follows that ##dom(f)\subseteq dom(F)##.
 
The domain of the derivative is always a subset of the domain of the function but not necessarily equal. for example, the function f(x)= |x| has domain "all real numbers" while it derivative, f'(x)= 1 if x> 0, -1 if x< 0, as domain "all real numbers except 0".
 

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