Hi all,(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

I was reading a paper in which implicit differentiation was used as follows

[tex] x \in R, \lambda \in R [/tex]

Given [tex] G(x,\lambda) = 0 [/tex]

[tex] \frac{\partial G(x,\lambda)}{\partial x} \frac{\partial x}{\partial \lambda} + \frac{\partial G(x,\lambda)}{\partial \lambda} = 0 [/tex]

My doubt is related to whether it is possible to do this even if x is say a function from R to R and G is therefore a functional. Is there a implicit differentiation rule for functionals ?

Thanks for your time !

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# Doubt about Implicit differentiation

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