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## Homework Statement

In Taylor's series, the Lagrange form of remainder is given by

[itex]R_n = \dfrac{f^{n+1}(t)(x-a)^{n+1}}{(n+1)!} \\ t \in [a,x][/itex]

whereas my book states that it is given by

[itex]\dfrac{h^n}{n!} f^n (a+ \theta h) \\ \theta(0,1) [/itex]

I don't see how these two are interrelated. Can anyone explain ?