Considering [itex]d=2[/itex] or [itex]d=3[/itex], the Ising model exhibits a second order phase transition at the critical temperature [itex]T_c[/itex], where the system goes from an ordered phase (spins preferably aligned in a certain direction) to a disordered one. This is reflected by the behaviour of the susceptibility, similar to a Dirac delta in [itex]T_c[/itex]; and, being the susceptibility a second order derivative of the free energy, we talk about second order phase transition.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Let's pass to the specific heat. Experimental results show that in [itex]T_c[/itex] also the specific heat has a Dirac delta beaviour, for both [itex]d=2[/itex] and [itex]d=3[/itex]; the literature usually says that [itex]C(T) \sim |T_c-T|^{-\alpha}[/itex], with [itex]\alpha=0[/itex] for [itex]d=2[/itex] and [itex]\alpha\sim 0.11[/itex] for [itex]d=3[/itex].

Now, my questions are:

- Why [itex]\alpha=0[/itex] for [itex]d=2[/itex], if numerical results show a Dirac delta behaviour? And, if this divergence really exists, I guess that we can't talk of first order transition, being the specific heat a first derivative of energy (and not of free energy). Am I right?

- When does the Ising model exhibits a first order phase transition? I've read that in presence of an external magnetic field the magnetization can show a "jump", and hence a first order transition. Is this true?

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# Doubts on 2D and 3D Ising Model

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