E&M separation of variables and Fourier

Click For Summary
The discussion revolves around solving a boundary value problem using separation of variables and Fourier series. The key issue raised is whether setting k to π/a simplifies the solution without violating boundary conditions, but it is clarified that all solutions are necessary to match the specific boundary condition V(0,y)=V0(y). The orthogonality of sine functions is emphasized, explaining that integrals yield zero for different frequencies and a/2 for the same frequency. Additionally, the integration process involving V0(y) is detailed, showing how it interacts with sine functions in the context of Fourier series. The conversation highlights the challenges faced by students new to differential equations and Fourier analysis, with suggestions for further study resources.
Mike Jonese
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Homework Statement


Boundary conditions are i) V=0 when y=0 ii) V=0 when y=a iii) V=V0(y) when x=0 iv) V=0 when x app infinity.
I understand and follow this problem (separating vars and eliminated constants) until the potential
is found to be V(x,y) = Ce^(-kx)*sin(ky)

Condition ii implies that V(0,a) = Csin(k*a) = 0 so sin(ka) must =0 and k=n*π/a
Question 1) Why can't we just set k=π/a so that V(0,y) = Csin(πy/a) where V(0,a) = 0 and V(0,0) =0? This would not screw up the boundary condition and you wouldn't have to deal with infinite solutions because of n?

Homework Equations


Moving on,
Book give a more general solution that includes all the different solutions due to n
V(x,y) = (n=1---->inf)∑Cn*e^(-nπx/a)*sin(nπy/a)
V(0,y) = (n=1---->inf)∑Cn*sin(nπy/a) = V0(y)
and now we are trying to find the Coefficient C's that make this possible
I'm including the section here to save typing
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I didn't realize the forum would kill the resolution
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3.Attempt at solution
I tried, I don't understand this in general ( I haven't taken diff eqn yet)
Question 2. How can you solve the integral that leads to (3.32)
Question 3 How does V0(y) pop into the integrand in (3.32)
Question 4 how can the answer be 0 or a/2 based on n and n' (is this some type of delta fxn?)
Question 5 Can someone describe as you would to a 3rd grader why 3.36 is an answer and what it means. Is this just an approximation?
Question 6. What makes something orthogonal in the sense of 3.32

I extremely appreciate and help or insight (or direction to external reference material) anyone might have. Thank you very much! -Mike


 
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Mike Jonese said:
Question 1) Why can't we just set k=π/a so that V(0,y) = Csin(πy/a) where V(0,a) = 0 and V(0,0) =0? This would not screw up the boundary condition and you wouldn't have to deal with infinite solutions because of n?
Because you need the whole family of solutions in order to match the boundary condition ##V(0,y)=V_{0}(y)##. There is no way to make ##V(0,y)=C\text{sin}(\pi y/a)=V_{0}(y)## unless ##V_{0}## happens to be that specific sine function.
Mike Jonese said:
Question 2. How can you solve the integral that leads to (3.32)
The point is that the sine functions are orthogonal so the integral is zero if the n's are different and ##a/2## if the n's are the same number.
Mike Jonese said:
Question 3 How does V0(y) pop into the integrand in (3.32)
We know that at ##x=0##
$$V(0,y)=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}C_{n}\text{sin}(n\pi y/a)=V_{0}(y)$$
The "trick" referenced is to first multiply both sides by ##\text{sin}(n^{\prime}\pi y/a)##
$$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}C_{n}\text{sin}(n\pi y/a)\text{sin}(n^{\prime}\pi y/a)=V_{0}(y)\text{sin}(n^{\prime}\pi y/a)$$
then integrate from 0 to ##a##
$$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}C_{n}\int_{0}^{a}\text{sin}(n\pi y/a)\text{sin}(n^{\prime}\pi y/a)dy=\int_{0}^{a}V_{0}(y)\text{sin}(n^{\prime}\pi y/a)dy$$
Mike Jonese said:
Question 4 how can the answer be 0 or a/2 based on n and n' (is this some type of delta fxn?)
Again, this is because sine functions are orthogonal. This means that when you integrate two of them over some number of half periods, then integral evaluates to zero if they have different frequencies or ##a/2## if they have the same frequency.
Mike Jonese said:
Question 5 Can someone describe as you would to a 3rd grader why 3.36 is an answer and what it means. Is this just an approximation?
I don't think I could explain Fourier analysis to a 3rd grader but Griffiths says just above this that he is now assuming that the potential is constant at ##x=0## so ##V_{0}(y)=V_{0}##. This causes ##V_{0}## to just pop out of the integral allowing you to just integrate the sine function as usual.
Mike Jonese said:
Question 6. What makes something orthogonal in the sense of 3.32
See answer to question 4.
Mike Jonese said:
I tried, I don't understand this in general ( I haven't taken diff eqn yet)
I was actually in the same position when I was learning E&M from Griffiths. I had only taken up to Calc III and spent hours carefully rereading this chapter until it finally hit me as to what was going on.
 
Thank you for taking the time to respond to that, that definitely shed some light on this. Do you happen to remember any good lecture notes online or youtube channels that you came across when you were taking the class that were good references? I found a youtube guy that goes through the same textbook but the quality is hit or miss. Anyways thanks again!
 
Mike Jonese said:
Thank you for taking the time to respond to that, that definitely shed some light on this. Do you happen to remember any good lecture notes online or youtube channels that you came across when you were taking the class that were good references? I found a youtube guy that goes through the same textbook but the quality is hit or miss. Anyways thanks again!
From what i remember I learned mostly from the book and my professor. It sounds like your main difficulty is the math, so I would suggest looking for books or websites on Fourier analysis.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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