Easy series divergence/convergence problem

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the convergence or divergence of the series \(\sum_{x=1}^{\infty}\left({e^{{x}^{-1}}}-1\right)\), with participants exploring various methods to analyze the series behavior.

Discussion Character

  • Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss using the Taylor series expansion of \(e^x\) to analyze the series, with one suggesting it resembles the harmonic series, leading to a potential conclusion of divergence. Another participant introduces the integral test as a method for determining convergence or divergence, while questioning the validity of the original reasoning. A third participant proposes using the limit comparison test with the harmonic series to argue for divergence.

Discussion Status

The discussion includes various perspectives on the methods used to analyze the series, with some participants expressing uncertainty about the reasoning presented. Multiple approaches are being explored, including the integral test and limit comparison test, without reaching a definitive consensus.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of conditions for applying the integral test, such as continuity and positivity of the function involved, while also considering the implications of using comparison tests.

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Homework Statement



[tex]\sum_{x=1}^{\infty}\left({e^{{x}^{-1}}}-1\right)[/tex]

Test for convergence/divergence

The Attempt at a Solution



Using the Taylor expansion of e^x, we have...

[tex]1+ \frac{1}{x} + \frac{1}{2!*x^2} + \frac{1}{3!*x^3} + ...[/tex]

So as n -> infinity, we see that the function tends to [tex]1+ \frac{1}{x}[/tex]. Now we subtract 1 from this. So apparently the sum seems to act as according to the harmonic series, so it should be divergent. Is my reasoning correct? I tried solving it on maple, which refused to give a solution (perhaps since it was divergent).
 
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Using your nice Taylor Series expansion, just minus the 1 off that and we have:

[tex]\sum_{x=1}^{\infty} \left( \frac{1}{x} + \frac{1}{2!x^2}+ {\frac{1}{3!x^3}..\right)[/tex].

Now just use the integral test, which states that [tex]\sum_{x=1}^{\infty} f(x)[/tex] and [tex]\int^{\infty}_1 f(x)[/tex] converge together or diverge together if f(x) is continuous in the interval, positive and decreasing.

So the integral is evaluated as such:
[tex]\log_e x - \frac{1}{1\cdot 2!\cdot x} - \frac{1}{2\cdot 3! \cdot x^2} - \frac{1}{ 3\cdot 4! \cdot x^3} ...\bigg|_{1}^{\infty}[/tex].

We can see that as x goes to infinity, all terms other than the log go to zero, whilst the log diverges.

Hence the integral diverges, and so does your series.

I'm not too sure about your previous reasoning, it seems a little disputable.
 
Last edited:
Ah yes, interesting test. My reasoning lies along the lines of...

[tex]\sum_{x=1}^{\infty} \left( \frac{1}{x} + \frac{1}{2!x^2}+ {\frac{1}{3!x^3}..\right) > \sum_{x=1}^{\infty} \left( \frac{1}{x}\right)[/tex]. So since the harmonic series is divergent, and our series here is greater than the harmonic series for all positive x, our series is divergent by the limit comparison test.

Is the integral test usually preferable to other tests if you can get the terms integrated? (since clearly you'd have to assume more in the comparison tests).
 
Well actually no, maybe it was something about the way I read it in your first post, but re written in your last one, your chain of reasoning is perfectly fine :)

I only use the integral test when I know that I can integrate the terms and if f(x) is continuous in the interval, positive and decreasing. It comes in handy more often than you would think actually. But it doesn't matter, usually there's a few ways to do these kinda questions.
 

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