MHB Efficient Integral by Parts Method | Solving x^2arctan(x)dx with Ease

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The discussion focuses on solving the integral ∫ x² arctan(x) dx using integration by parts. A participant suggests simplifying the integrand ∫ x³/(1+x²) dx through long division, leading to a more straightforward integration. Another participant attempts a substitution method but realizes their integrand is incorrect after feedback. The correct substitution yields a simpler solution, confirming the importance of accurately transforming the integrand. The conversation highlights effective techniques in integral calculus and the value of peer assistance in problem-solving.
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Hello MHB, I'm trying to solve this integral:\int x^2arctan(x)dx by parts :
here is a litle bit of my resolution: http://i.imgur.com/dZk8M.jpg

when I tried to solve the integral I named B fell into a sort of lool lool.
 
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Chipset3600 said:
Hello MHB, I'm trying to solve this integral:\int x^2arctan(x)dx by parts :
here is a litle bit of my resolution: http://i.imgur.com/dZk8M.jpg

when I tried to solve the integral I named B fell into a sort of lool lool.

All looks good so far. Let's focus on this guy, though:

\[\int\frac{x^3}{1+x^2}\,dx\]

I would first recommend you reduce the integrand using long division. Doing this correctly should yield

\[\frac{x^3}{1+x^2}=x-\frac{x}{1+x^2}\]

So, we see that

\[\int\frac{x^3}{1+x^2}\,dx=\int\left(x-\frac{x}{1+x^2}\right)\,dx\]

This should be a straightforward integration; no IBP is needed at this point.

Combine this result with everything else you have and you'll get your answer.

I hope this makes sense!
 
Chris L T521 said:
All looks good so far. Let's focus on this guy, though:

\[\int\frac{x^3}{1+x^2}\,dx\]

I would first recommend you reduce the integrand using long division. Doing this correctly should yield

\[\frac{x^3}{1+x^2}=x-\frac{x}{1+x^2}\]

So, we see that

\[\int\frac{x^3}{1+x^2}\,dx=\int\left(x-\frac{x}{1+x^2}\right)\,dx\]

This should be a straightforward integration; no IBP is needed at this point.

Combine this result with everything else you have and you'll get your answer.

I hope this makes sense!

Thanks, it was much simpler, I tried to do polynomial division, but not crossed my mind to separate fractions by.
Thank you
 
I have tried another method: use the substitution $u = 1+x^2$. Therefore $du = 2x \, dx$ and $x^2 = u-1$. The integral changes shape into

$$\int \frac{x^3}{1+x^2} \, dx = \frac{1}{2} \int (u-1) \, du.$$

This yields

$$\frac{1}{2} \int (u-1) \, du = \frac{u^2}{4} + \frac{u}{2} + C = \frac{(x^2 +1)^2}{4} + \frac{(x^2 +1)}{2} + C.$$

However, it is a different answer. What is wrong?
 
Fantini said:
I have tried another method: use the substitution $u = 1+x^2$. Therefore $du = 2x \, dx$ and $x^2 = u-1$. The integral changes shape into

$$\int \frac{x^3}{1+x^2} \, dx = \frac{1}{2} \int (u-1) \, du.$$

This yields

$$\frac{1}{2} \int (u-1) \, du = \frac{u^2}{4} + \frac{u}{2} + C = \frac{(x^2 +1)^2}{4} + \frac{(x^2 +1)}{2} + C.$$

However, it is a different answer. What is wrong?

Your integrand after making the substitution isn't correct. You should have

\[\int \frac{x^3}{1+x^2}\,dx\xrightarrow{u=x^2+1}{}\int \frac{u-1}{2u}\,du.\]
 
Last edited:
Good point, I had forgotten that part. Now the answer is complete (and easier). Thanks Chris! (Clapping)
 
There are probably loads of proofs of this online, but I do not want to cheat. Here is my attempt: Convexity says that $$f(\lambda a + (1-\lambda)b) \leq \lambda f(a) + (1-\lambda) f(b)$$ $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (f(a) - f(b))$$ We know from the intermediate value theorem that there exists a ##c \in (b,a)## such that $$\frac{f(a) - f(b)}{a-b} = f'(c).$$ Hence $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (a - b) f'(c))$$ $$\frac{f(b + \lambda(a-b)) - f(b)}{\lambda(a-b)}...

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