In classical mechanics, the time derivative of the kinetic energy of a particle is given by the particle velocity multiplied by the force. Specifically, in one dimension, this translates into:(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

(d/dt)(p^2/2m)= −p/m ∂V/∂x

I'm unsure how to prove this....

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# Ehrenfest theorem for kinetic energy

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