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Eigenvalue of Total Angular Momentum Probability

  1. Jan 11, 2013 #1
    Hey,

    My question is on the probability of attaining a particular eigenvalue for the total angular momentum operator squared for a particular state ψ, the question is shown in the image below:

    j_2.png

    I believe the eigenvalue of the total angular momentum operator squared is given by j(j+1), which is only equal to 2 when j=1, does this mean the probability of attaining the eigenvalue 2 for the total angular momentum squared is just 1 (i.e. 100%)?

    Cheers,
    SK
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Jan 11, 2013 #2

    vela

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    Yes, you got it.
     
  4. Jan 11, 2013 #3
    Marvellous! Easier than I thought then, Cheers vela.
     
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