- #1

Sekonda

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My question is on the probability of attaining a particular eigenvalue for the total angular momentum operator squared for a particular state ψ, the question is shown in the image below:

I believe the eigenvalue of the total angular momentum operator squared is given by j(j+1), which is only equal to 2 when j=1, does this mean the probability of attaining the eigenvalue 2 for the total angular momentum squared is just 1 (i.e. 100%)?

Cheers,

SK