Einstein Theorem: Questions about Why b1co=0modp and boc1=0modp

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the Einstein Theorem, specifically addressing the conditions under which the coefficients b1co and boc1 equal zero modulo p. It is established that since a1 = 0 mod p and b1co = 0 mod p, it follows that boc1 must also equal 0 mod p. The participants clarify that while the sum b1co + boc1 = 0 mod p, this does not imply that b1co must equal 0 mod p without additional assumptions. The conversation highlights the importance of clearly stating the assumptions of the theorem for accurate interpretation.

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Then the proof goes on to consider coefficient of x viz a1=boc1 + b1co, and we know that a1=0modp and b1co=0modp so boc1=0modp...


...2 questions why is b1co necessarily =0modp ? and secondly why does it follow that boc1=0modp? ...



... i mean sure we know the sum b1co + boc1 =0modp but surely this doesn't imply b1co=0modp e.g 9=0mod3 but 9=5+4 and it is not true 5=0mod3
 
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btw does anyone know how to get all the mathematical symbols and stuff cos I'm getting really bored of typin g everything out long hand!
 
I don't know what you're trying to prove here, but the way you've worded it seems to suggest that you know that a1=0modp and b1co=0modp. Comparing this to your first equation, then clearly boc1=0modp.

However, I don't think this is what you're asking. Perhaps you should state the assumptions of the theorem!
 
[ tex ] a^x_n [ /tex ]
 

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