Einstein Theorem: Questions about Why b1co=0modp and boc1=0modp

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around questions related to a theorem attributed to Einstein, specifically focusing on the modular arithmetic properties of coefficients in an equation. Participants explore the implications of certain coefficients being congruent to zero modulo p, as well as the assumptions underlying these statements.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions why b1co is necessarily equal to 0 mod p, suggesting that the sum b1co + boc1 = 0 mod p does not imply b1co = 0 mod p without further justification.
  • Another participant asserts that if a1 = 0 mod p and b1co = 0 mod p, then boc1 must also equal 0 mod p, although they express uncertainty about the original question being asked.
  • A participant mentions the need for clarity regarding the assumptions of the theorem to better understand the implications of the statements made.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants appear to have differing views on the implications of the modular arithmetic statements, with some asserting certain conclusions while others challenge the assumptions and reasoning behind them. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the necessity of b1co being 0 mod p.

Contextual Notes

There is a lack of clarity regarding the assumptions of the theorem, which may affect the interpretation of the modular relationships discussed. Additionally, the mathematical steps leading to the conclusions are not fully elaborated.

catcherintherye
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Then the proof goes on to consider coefficient of x viz a1=boc1 + b1co, and we know that a1=0modp and b1co=0modp so boc1=0modp...


...2 questions why is b1co necessarily =0modp ? and secondly why does it follow that boc1=0modp? ...



... i mean sure we know the sum b1co + boc1 =0modp but surely this doesn't imply b1co=0modp e.g 9=0mod3 but 9=5+4 and it is not true 5=0mod3
 
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btw does anyone know how to get all the mathematical symbols and stuff cos I'm getting really bored of typin g everything out long hand!
 
I don't know what you're trying to prove here, but the way you've worded it seems to suggest that you know that a1=0modp and b1co=0modp. Comparing this to your first equation, then clearly boc1=0modp.

However, I don't think this is what you're asking. Perhaps you should state the assumptions of the theorem!
 
[ tex ] a^x_n [ /tex ]
 

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