Elastic collision in 2 dimensions

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The discussion focuses on solving for the kinetic energy of a ball after an elastic collision in two dimensions. The problem involves a ball with mass m and initial velocity v1i colliding with a stationary ball of the same mass, resulting in the first ball moving at an angle θ1. The user attempts to isolate unknown variables using equations related to momentum and kinetic energy conservation. After manipulating the equations, they derive that the final velocity of the first ball is v1f = v1i*cos(θ1), leading to the conclusion that the kinetic energy after the collision is KE1f = 0.5*m*(v1i*cos(θ1))^2. The thread highlights the process of applying physics equations to arrive at the solution.
Necropolitan
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[SOLVED] Elastic collision in 2 dimensions

Homework Statement



A ball with mass m and initial velocity v1i collides elastically with a second ball of the same mass that is initially at rest. After the collision, the first ball moves away at an angle of θ1 with respect to the initial velocity. What is the kinetic energy of the first ball after the collision, with respect to the variables m, v1i, and θ1?


Homework Equations



v1i - v1f*cos(θ1) = v2f*cos(θ2)
v1f*sin(θ1) = v2f*sin(θ2)
v1i2 = v1f2 + v2f2
KE1f = 0.5*m*v1f2

The Attempt at a Solution



I know I have enough information to solve for the final kinetic energy of the first ball, but I'm stumped on how to isolate the unknown variables from the system of equations.
So far I have:
v1i2 = v2f2*((sin22) / sin21)) + 1)
tan(θ2) = v1f*sin(θ1) / (v1i - v1f*cos(θ1))
But I don't know where to go from here.

EDIT: I squared the first and second equations and added them together, so now I have
v1i2 - 2*v1i*v1f*cos(θ1) + v1f2 = v2f2

I substituted using the kinetic energy balance equation, did the algebra, and came up with
v1i2 - 2*v1i*v1f*cos(θ1) + v1f2 = v1i2 - v1f2

Simplifying this gave:
v1f = v1i*cos(θ1)

Therefore the kinetic energy of ball 1 after the collision is
KE1f = 0.5*m*(v1i*cos(θ1))2
 
Last edited:
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Welcome to PF!

Hi Necropolitan! Welcome to PF! :wink:
Necropolitan said:
EDIT: I squared the first and second equations and added them together, so now I have
v1i2 - 2*v1i*v1f*cos(θ1) + v1f2 = v2f2
Now I'll try to see if this gets me anywhere.

Yup, that should do it! :smile:
 
Thanks tiny-tim!
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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