Elementary Number Theory: Wilson's Theorem

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving a property related to Wilson's Theorem and prime numbers, specifically focusing on the expression \((p-1)! + 1\) and its divisors. The original poster is attempting to establish that a prime \(p\) is the smallest prime divisor of this expression.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster discusses the relationship between prime divisors of \((p-1)! + 1\) and congruences involving smaller primes. Participants raise questions about the implications of these congruences and whether smaller primes can divide the expression.

Discussion Status

Participants are exploring various aspects of the problem, including the implications of congruences for primes less than \(p\). There is an ongoing examination of whether these smaller primes can divide \((p-1)! + 1\) and how the congruences behave under certain conditions.

Contextual Notes

There is an assumption that all primes less than \(p\) do not divide \((p-1)! + 1\), which is being questioned and analyzed throughout the discussion.

cwatki14
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I am aiming to prove that p is the smallest prime that divides (p-1)!+1. I got the first part of the proof. It pretty much follows from Fermat's Little Theorem/ Wilson's Theorem, but I am stuck on how to prove that p is the smallest prime that divides (p-1)! +1. I am assuming that every other prime divisor of (p-1)!+1 is related to p by some congruence? Any ideas how to prove this tidbit? - Thanks
 
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Let q < p be a prime. Now what can you say about the congruence \left(p-1\right)!\equiv -1\left(\rm{mod} q\right)?
 
JSuarez said:
Let q < p be a prime. Now what can you say about the congruence \left(p-1\right)!\equiv -1\left(\rm{mod} q\right)?

If q< p then q does q no longer divides (p-1)!+1? If a prime is larger than p then does it also not divide (p-1)!+1?
 
You have proved that p is a divisor of (p-1)!+1. Now you want to prove that it is the smallest prime divisor of that quantity, so let's stick with a prime q < p. What does the congruence that I wrote in the first post reduces to?
 
so when you pair each term with an inverse everything equals out to one 1x1x(p-1) but when q<p all of these pairs of inverses don't cancel? are there still terms on one of the sides of the congruence?
 
If q < p, is q a factor of (p-1)!? If yes, what happens when you reduce mod q?
 

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