- #1

bdforbes

- 152

- 0

[tex] H_z = H_0 J_{n}(\rho \chi)e^{in\phi} [/tex]

Where [tex]\chi[/tex] is the appropriate eigenvalue.

My result for <S> implies helical energy flow; it has a z component and a phi component. Does this make sense? Instinctively I would have thought the energy would just flow in the z direction, but since it's circularly polarised I'm not so sure.

The circularly polarised mode is simply two orthogonal TE modes of the same wavenumber out of phase by pi/2. Couldn't we consider the total energy propagation to be the superposition of the propagation of each component? In that case it seems like the energy should only go in the z direction.