Equivalence of Euler-Lagrange equations and Cardinal Equations for a rigid planar system

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on the derivation of the total kinetic energy for a rigid planar system using König's theorem and the subsequent formulation of the Euler-Lagrange equations. The kinetic energy is expressed in terms of the center of mass velocity and angular velocity, leading to complex equations for motion. The participant attempts to relate these equations to cardinal equations for conservation of momentum and angular momentum but struggles to derive the angular momentum equation from the Lagrangian equations. The conversation highlights the complexity of the variables involved and suggests a potential need for variable transformation to simplify the analysis. The participant plans to re-evaluate their calculations based on the provided Lagrangian formulation.
l4teLearner
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Homework Statement
Check the equivalence of cardinal equations w.r.t Euler-Lagrange equations for a simple rigid planar system of a rod freely moving in space.

Consider the system depicted in the figure (see solution attempt) where a (thin) uniform rod of mass ##m## and length ##l## (section of the rod is negligible) is freely moving in two dimensional space. Given the lagrangian coordinates ##r##, ##\varphi## and ##\psi## shown in the picture, calculate the equations of motion for the body using Lagrange-Euler equations, then using the cardinal equations and finally compare the result. The two descriptions must be equivalent.
Relevant Equations
Koenig theorem for the Kinetic energy of a rigid body
$$T=\frac{1}{2}mv_p^2+\frac{1}{2}mI{\omega}^2$$

Euler Lagrange equations
$$L_r=\frac{d}{dt}\left(\frac{\partial}{\partial \dot r}(L) \right)-\frac{\partial}{\partial r}(L)=0$$
$$L_\varphi=\frac{d}{dt}\left(\frac{\partial}{\partial \dot \varphi}(L) \right)-\frac{\partial}{\partial \varphi}(L)=0$$
$$L_\psi=\frac{d}{dt}\left(\frac{\partial}{\partial \dot \psi}(L) \right)-\frac{\partial}{\partial \psi}(L)=0$$

Cardinal equations for a rigid body.
$$C_x=m\frac{dv_x}{dt}=0$$
$$C_y=m\frac{dv_y}{dt}=0$$
$$C_\omega=I\frac{d}{dt}(\omega)=0$$
1000035111.png

I express the total kinetic energy of the body, via König theorem, as

$$T=\frac{1}{2}mv_p^2+\frac{1}{2}mI{\omega}^2$$

where $$v_p=(v_x,v_y)=(\dot{r}\cos\varphi-r\dot{\varphi}\sin\varphi-\frac{l}{2}(\dot\varphi-\dot\psi)\sin(\varphi-\psi),\dot r \sin\varphi+r\dot\varphi \cos\varphi+\frac{l}{2}(\dot\varphi-\dot\psi)\cos(\varphi-\psi))$$ is the velocity of the center of mass, ##\omega=\dot\varphi-\dot\psi## is the angular velocity and ##I=\frac{1}{12}ml^2## is the moment of inertia of the rod with respect to its center of mass.

Doing the calculations (which I double checked with various platforms whose name starts with "M", so I am not sure the problem lies in the calculations) I get

$$T=\frac{1}{2}(\dot r^2+r^2\dot\varphi^2+\frac{l^2}{3}(\dot\varphi-\dot\psi)^2+l(\dot\varphi-\dot\psi)(r\dot\varphi \cos\psi+\dot r \sin\psi))$$

and the following Euler-Lagrange equations

$$L_r=\frac{d}{dt}\left(\frac{\partial}{\partial \dot r}(L) \right)-\frac{\partial}{\partial r}(L)=m (-2 \dot{\varphi}^2 r + 2 \ddot{r} +l \sin(\psi) (\ddot{\varphi} - \ddot{\psi} ) +l \cos(\psi)(\dot{\varphi}-\dot{\psi})^2 )/2=0$$

$$L_\varphi=\frac{d}{dt} \left(\frac{\partial}{\partial \dot \varphi}(L)\right)-\frac{\partial}{\partial \varphi}(L)=
\frac{m}{3} l^2(\ddot{\varphi} - \ddot{\psi}) +
m l \cos(\psi)\left(\dot{\varphi} \dot{r} + \ddot{\varphi} r - \frac{\ddot{\psi} r}{2}\right)
+ m l \sin(\psi) \left( \frac{\dot{\psi}^2 r}{2} - \dot{\varphi} \dot{\psi} r+ \frac{\ddot{r}}{2} \right) + m\ddot{\varphi} r^2+ 2m\dot{\varphi} \dot{r} r
=0$$

$$L_\psi=\frac{d}{dt}\left(\frac{\partial}{\partial \dot \psi}(L)\right)-\frac{\partial}{\partial \psi}(L)=
-\frac{m}{3} l^2 (\ddot{\varphi} - \ddot{\psi})- m l \cos(\psi) \left(\dot{r}\dot{\varphi} + \frac{\ddot{\varphi} r}{2}\right) -\frac{m}{2} l \sin(\psi)(\ddot{r}- r \dot{\varphi}^2 )
=0$$

If instead I calculate the cardinal equations, where I indicate quantities as:

- ##C_x=0## for the conservation of linear momentum along the x-axis
- ##C_y=0## for the conservation of linear momentum along the y-axix
- ##C_\omega=0##, for the conservation of angular momentum

I get the following equations:

$$C_x=m\frac{dv_x}{dt}=m(\ddot r \cos \varphi -2 \dot r \dot \varphi \sin \varphi -r \ddot \varphi \sin \varphi -r \dot \varphi^2 \cos \varphi-\frac{l}{2}(\ddot \varphi - \ddot \psi)\sin(\varphi-\psi)-\frac{l}{2}(\dot\varphi-\dot\psi)^2\cos(\varphi-\psi)=0$$

$$C_y=m\frac{dv_y}{dt}=m(\ddot r \sin \varphi + 2 \dot r \dot \varphi \cos \varphi + r \ddot \varphi \cos \varphi -r \dot \varphi^2 \sin \varphi+\frac{l}{2}(\ddot \varphi - \ddot \psi)\cos(\varphi-\psi)-\frac{l}{2}(\dot\varphi-\dot\psi)^2\sin(\varphi-\psi)=0$$

$$C_\omega=I\frac{d}{dt}(\omega)=\frac{1}{12}ml^2\dot\omega=\frac{1}{12}ml^2(\ddot\varphi-\ddot\psi)=0$$

In particular, I do get $$C_x \cos\varphi+C_y \sin\varphi=L_r$$ which seems promising to me, but I cannot find any way to retrieve ##C_\omega## from ##L_r##, ##L_\varphi##, ##L_\psi##.

I need to understand, am I just having an algebraic computation problem here, or is there a flaw in my reasoning? I am not asking to check my calculations, (you are welcome of course if you want) but to check the methodology. Maybe I am making some wrong assumptions on the ##T##, ##C## and ##\omega## quantities?

thanks
 
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I observe that x,y coordinates of center of inertia is
(r \cos\phi+\frac{l}{2} \cos \theta, r \sin\phi+\frac{l}{2} \sin \theta)
\omega = \dot{\theta}
where
\theta = \phi - \Psi
I hope it could be your help to check your result.
L(r,\dot{r},\phi,\dot{\phi},\theta,\dot{\theta})=\frac{m}{2}[ \ \dot{r}^2+r^2\dot{\phi}^2+\frac{l^2}{3}\dot{\theta}^2+l\dot{\theta}\cos(\phi-\theta)r\dot{\phi}+l\dot{\theta}\sin(\phi-\theta)\dot{r} \ ]
 
Last edited:
anuttarasammyak said:
I observe that x,y coordinates of center of inertia is
(r \cos\phi+\frac{l}{2} \cos \theta, r \sin\phi+\frac{l}{2} \sin \theta)
\omega = \dot{\theta}
where
\theta = \phi - \psi
I hope it could be your help to check your result.
hi anuttarasammyak, thanks for your help. yes, I evaluated the angular velocity as ##\dot \phi - \dot \psi##, it's one of the formulas I wrote just under the picture, in the first paragraph.
 
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I think the variables are complex and indirect. By changing the variables, center of inertia is
(r \cos\phi+\frac{l}{2} \cos \theta, r \sin\phi+\frac{l}{2} \sin \theta)=(R\cos \xi, R\sin\xi)
Lagrangian should be
L(R,\dot{R},\xi,\dot{\xi},\theta,\dot{\theta})=\frac{m}{2}[ \ \dot{R}^2+R^2\dot{\xi}^2+\frac{l^2}{12}\dot{\theta}^2\ ]
where
R=\sqrt{r^2+\frac{l^2}{4}+rl\cos\Psi}
\xi=\tan^{-1}\frac{r \sin\phi+\frac{l}{2} \sin (\phi-\Psi)}{r \cos\phi+\frac{l}{2} \cos(\phi-\Psi)}
\theta=\phi-\Psi
 
Last edited:
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anuttarasammyak said:
I think the variables are complex and indirect. By changing the variables, center of inertia is
(r \cos\phi+\frac{l}{2} \cos \theta, r \sin\phi+\frac{l}{2} \sin \theta)=(R\cos \xi, R\sin\xi)
Lagrangian should be
L(R,\dot{R},\xi,\dot{\xi},\theta,\dot{\theta})=\frac{m}{2}[ \ \dot{R}^2+R^2\dot{\xi}^2+\frac{l^2}{12}\dot{\theta}^2\ ]
where
R=\sqrt{r^2+\frac{l^2}{4}+rl\cos\Psi}
\xi=\tan^{-1}\frac{r \sin\phi+\frac{l}{2} \sin (\phi-\Psi)}{r \cos\phi+\frac{l}{2} \cos(\phi-\Psi)}
\theta=\phi-\Psi
thank you! I will attempt the calculations with the lagrangian that you provided and will let you know.
 
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