MHB Erfan's question at Yahoo Answers regarding summation of series

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The discussion focuses on evaluating the summation of series using the method of differences. It begins by demonstrating that r/(r+1)! can be expressed as 1/r! - 1/(r+1)!, which is proven through algebraic manipulation. The first summation, S_n, from 1 to n, is calculated to be 1 - 1/(n+1)!. The second summation, S_infinity, from 1 to infinity, is evaluated by breaking it down into two parts, leading to the conclusion that S_infinity equals 2e - 3. The discussion effectively illustrates the application of series summation techniques in mathematical analysis.
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Here is the question:

Summation of series ( Method of differences )?

Show that r/(r+1)! = 1/r! - 1/(r+1)! , hence or otherwise , evaluate i) sum of r/(r+1)! from 1 to n

ii) sum of (r+2)/(r+1)! from 1 to infinity
giving your answer to part ii in the terms of e .

I have posted a link there to this topic so the OP can see my work.
 
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Hello again Erfan,

First we are asked to show:

$$\frac{r}{(r+1)!}=\frac{1}{r!}-\frac{1}{(r+1)!}$$

There are a couple of ways we could do this:

a) Combine terms on the right side:

$$\frac{1}{r!}-\frac{1}{(r+1)!}=\frac{(r+1)!-r!}{r!(r+1)!}=\frac{r!((r+1)-1)}{r!(r+1)!}=\frac{r}{(r+1)!}$$

b) Add $$0=1-1$$ to the numerator on the left side:

$$\frac{r}{(r+1)!}=\frac{(r+1)-1}{(r+1)!}=\frac{1}{r!}-\frac{1}{(r+1)!}$$

i) We are asked to evaluate:

$$S_n=\sum_{r=1}^n\left(\frac{r}{(r+1)!} \right)$$

Using the result above, we may write:

$$S_n=\sum_{r=1}^n\left(\frac{1}{r!} \right)-\sum_{r=1}^n\left(\frac{1}{(r+1)!} \right)$$

Re-indexing the first sum, we have:

$$S_n=\sum_{r=0}^{n-1}\left(\frac{1}{(r+1)!} \right)-\sum_{r=1}^n\left(\frac{1}{(r+1)!} \right)$$

Pulling off the first term from the first sum and the last term from the second, we will be left with sums having the same indices:

$$S_n=\left(1+\sum_{r=1}^{n-1}\left(\frac{1}{(r+1)!} \right) \right)-\left(\sum_{r=1}^{n-1}\left(\frac{1}{(r+1)!} \right)+\frac{1}{(n+1)!} \right)$$

The sums add to zero, and we are left with:

$$S_n=1-\frac{1}{(n+1)!}$$

ii) We are now asked to evaluate:

$$S_{\infty}=\sum_{r=1}^{\infty}\left(\frac{r+2}{(r+1)!} \right)$$

We may rewrite the summand to obtain:

$$S_{\infty}=\sum_{r=1}^{\infty}\left(\frac{r}{(r+1)!} \right)+2\sum_{r=1}^{\infty}\left(\frac{1}{(r+1)!} \right)$$

Using the result from part i) for the first sum and re-indexing the second sum, there results:

$$S_{\infty}=\lim_{n\to\infty}\left(1-\frac{1}{(n+1)!} \right)+2\left(\sum_{r=2}^{\infty}\left(\frac{1}{r!} \right) \right)$$

Evaluating the limit and rewriting the sum, we find:

$$S_{\infty}=1+2\left(\sum_{r=0}^{\infty}\left(\frac{1}{r!} \right)-2 \right)$$

Using:

$$e=\sum_{r=0}^{\infty}\left(\frac{1}{r!} \right)$$

we now have:

$$S_{\infty}=1+2\left(e-2 \right)=2e-3$$
 
Here is a little puzzle from the book 100 Geometric Games by Pierre Berloquin. The side of a small square is one meter long and the side of a larger square one and a half meters long. One vertex of the large square is at the center of the small square. The side of the large square cuts two sides of the small square into one- third parts and two-thirds parts. What is the area where the squares overlap?

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