Estimate p from sample of two Binomially Distributions

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around estimating the parameter p from two independent binomial distributions, specifically X~B(5,p) and Y~B(7,p), based on observed values x=3 and y=5. Participants are exploring the best minimum-variance unbiased estimator for p using maximum likelihood estimation.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the use of maximum likelihood estimators and the Cramer-Rao lower bound in the context of independent binomial distributions. There are attempts to derive the likelihood function and its derivative to estimate p. Some participants question the validity of certain steps in the derivation and the implications of using a combined distribution approach.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing feedback on each other's mathematical reasoning. There is recognition of different interpretations of the likelihood function, and some participants express agreement on the final estimate while questioning earlier steps in the calculations.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of correctly applying the properties of binomial distributions and the implications of using a combined distribution versus individual outcomes. There is also mention of potential errors in fraction simplification and the need for clarity in the derivation process.

Scootertaj
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1. Suppose X~B(5,p) and Y~(7,p) independent of X. Sampling once from each population gives x=3,y=5. What is the best (minimum-variance unbiased) estimate of p?

Homework Equations


P(X=x)=\binom{n}{x}p^x(1-p)^{n-x}

The Attempt at a Solution


My idea is that Maximum Likelihood estimators are unbiased, and have asymptotic variance = Cramer-Rao lower bound. Also, C-R lower bound = minimum variance of unbiased estimators.
So, since X and Y independent, X+Y \sim B(5+7,p)=B(12,p)
Thus, can we just compute the likelihood function and take the derivative?
L = \binom{12}{8}p^8(1-p)^4
\frac{dL}{dp} = 8p^7(1-p)^4 - 4p^8(1-p)^3
Thus, p=8/12=2/3

Is that legit?
 
Last edited:
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The method is OK as far as I know (not an expert on unbiased estimators), but I have a problem with this step:
Scootertaj said:
\frac{dL}{dp} = 8p^7(1-p)^4 - 4p^8(1-p)^3
Thus, p=8/12=3/4
That's not what I get by putting dL/dp =0.
 
\frac{dL}{dp} = 8p^7(1-p)^4 - 4p^8(1-p)^3=0
p^7(1-p)^3[8(1-p)]-4p]=0
8-8p-4p=0 ignoring p=0,p=1
8=12p \Rightarrow p=8/12=2/3

Did I miss something?
Note: I screwed up my fraction simplification previously if that's what you meant.
 
Scootertaj said:
I screwed up my fraction simplification previously if that's what you meant.
Yes.
 
Scootertaj said:
1. Suppose X~B(5,p) and Y~(7,p) independent of X. Sampling once from each population gives x=3,y=5. What is the best (minimum-variance unbiased) estimate of p?



Homework Equations


P(X=x)=\binom{n}{x}p^x(1-p)^{n-x}


The Attempt at a Solution


My idea is that Maximum Likelihood estimators are unbiased, and have asymptotic variance = Cramer-Rao lower bound. Also, C-R lower bound = minimum variance of unbiased estimators.
So, since X and Y independent, X+Y \sim B(5+7,p)=B(12,p)
Thus, can we just compute the likelihood function and take the derivative?
L = \binom{12}{8}p^8(1-p)^4
\frac{dL}{dp} = 8p^7(1-p)^4 - 4p^8(1-p)^3
Thus, p=8/12=2/3

Is that legit?

I disagree with your expression for L, but agree with the final answer you get later. You only get B(n,p)+B(m,p) = B(n+m,p) when you perform a convolution (that is, sum over all the outcomes for each term). In your case you just have one outcome from each binomial, so you should use
L = {5 \choose 3}p^3(1-p)^2 {7 \choose 5} p^5 (1-p)^2. Of course, this has the form ##c p^8(1-p)^4,## so will give the same result you got.
 
Ahh yes, I thought about that also. It's nice to see I wasn't off-base by considering that way.
Why does it not make statistical sense to use the L I suggested (which is based off the fact that X+Y~B(12,p) ?
 
Scootertaj said:
Ahh yes, I thought about that also. It's nice to see I wasn't off-base by considering that way.
Why does it not make statistical sense to use the L I suggested (which is based off the fact that X+Y~B(12,p) ?

I already gave the explanation, although it was very brief. I mean that P(X+Y=8) = P(X=1,Y=7) + P(X=2,Y=6) + P(X=3,Y=5) + P(X=4,Y=4)+ P(X=5,Y=3), a sum of 5 terms, but you have only the term P(X=3,Y=5). Each separate term has p^8 * (1-p)^4, but with different coefficients.
 
Last edited:

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