Is there a way to measure how large a numerical value a loop integral will give?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

For example, take this integral over loop momenta k:

[tex]\frac{1}{k^2+m^2} \frac{1}{(k+p)^2+m^2} [/tex]

How does it compare to setting p=0:

[tex]\frac{1}{k^2+m^2} \frac{1}{(k)^2+m^2} [/tex]

or to a double integral over loop momenta k and q:

[tex]\frac{1}{k^2+m^2} \frac{1}{q^2+m^2}\frac{1}{(k+q)^2+m^2} [/tex]

All I know how to do is to Wick rotate, regulate, renormalize, and I also know that [tex]\frac{1}{k^2+m^2}[/tex] should really be: [tex]\frac{1}{k^2+m^2-i\epsilon}[/tex] so that the integral over the energy component will not blow up - any blow up will be in the 3-momentum component.

But I'm not sure what's really going on with all these integrals. Some of them are infinite and you have to renormalize, and you're left with a finite part, but how to estimate the magnitude of the finite part?

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Estimating size of loop integrals

Can you offer guidance or do you also need help?

Draft saved
Draft deleted

Loading...

Similar Threads - Estimating size loop | Date |
---|---|

I Does MWI predict spot size on screen | Sep 6, 2017 |

I Cosmological constant estimation in QFT | May 30, 2017 |

How to estimate the power of laser beam | Jul 23, 2015 |

Seeking opinion of others on quantum systems control and estimation theory | Sep 30, 2014 |

Adiabatic approxmation, estimate of d\phi/dx | Jun 16, 2011 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**