MHB Evaluate the integral ∫[arctan(ax)−arctan(bx)]/xdx

  • Thread starter Thread starter lfdahl
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Integral
Click For Summary
The integral ∫[arctan(ax)−arctan(bx)]/xdx is evaluated over the interval from 0 to infinity, where a and b are positive real numbers. The discussion includes a solution provided by a participant, indicating engagement with the challenge. Appreciation is expressed for the contributions made by participants in the thread. The focus remains on the mathematical evaluation of the integral and the collaborative nature of the discussion. Overall, the thread highlights the process of solving a specific integral involving arctangent functions.
lfdahl
Gold Member
MHB
Messages
747
Reaction score
0
Evaluate the integral:

\[ \int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{\arctan(ax)-\arctan(bx)}{x}dx\]

where $a,b \in \mathbb{R}_+$
 
Mathematics news on Phys.org
It's been a while since I've done one of these challenges. :D Here is my solution.

The answer is $\displaystyle \frac{\pi}{2}\ln\frac{a}{b}$. Note

$$\arctan(ax) - \arctan(bx) = \int_b^a \frac{x}{1 + (tx)^2}\, dt$$

Fubini's theorem allows us to write

$$\int_0^\infty \frac{\arctan(ax) - \arctan(bx)}{x}\, dx = \int_b^a \int_0^\infty \frac{dt}{1 + (tx)^2}\, dx$$

This is justified as

$$\int_1^\infty \frac{dt}{1 + (tx)^2} < \int_1^\infty \frac{dt}{t^2x^2} = \frac{1}{x^2}$$ and $\displaystyle \int_b^a \frac{dx}{x^2} < \infty$.

Now

$$\int_0^\infty \frac{dt}{1 + (tx)^2} = \frac{\arctan(tx)}{x}\bigg|_{t = 0}^\infty = \frac{\pi}{2x}$$ and $\displaystyle\int_b^a \frac{\pi}{2x}\, dx = \frac{\pi}{2}\ln\frac{a}{b}$. Therefore

$$\int_0^\infty \frac{\arctan(ax) - \arctan(bx)}{x}\, dx = \frac{\pi}{2}\ln\frac{a}{b}$$
 
Euge said:
It's been a while since I've done one of these challenges. :D Here is my solution.

The answer is $\displaystyle \frac{\pi}{2}\ln\frac{a}{b}$. Note

$$\arctan(ax) - \arctan(bx) = \int_b^a \frac{x}{1 + (tx)^2}\, dt$$

Fubini's theorem allows us to write

$$\int_0^\infty \frac{\arctan(ax) - \arctan(bx)}{x}\, dx = \int_b^a \int_0^\infty \frac{dt}{1 + (tx)^2}\, dx$$

This is justified as

$$\int_1^\infty \frac{dt}{1 + (tx)^2} < \int_1^\infty \frac{dt}{t^2x^2} = \frac{1}{x^2}$$ and $\displaystyle \int_b^a \frac{dx}{x^2} < \infty$.

Now

$$\int_0^\infty \frac{dt}{1 + (tx)^2} = \frac{\arctan(tx)}{x}\bigg|_{t = 0}^\infty = \frac{\pi}{2x}$$ and $\displaystyle\int_b^a \frac{\pi}{2x}\, dx = \frac{\pi}{2}\ln\frac{a}{b}$. Therefore

$$\int_0^\infty \frac{\arctan(ax) - \arctan(bx)}{x}\, dx = \frac{\pi}{2}\ln\frac{a}{b}$$

Excellent, Euge! Thankyou very much for your participation!:cool:
 
Here is a little puzzle from the book 100 Geometric Games by Pierre Berloquin. The side of a small square is one meter long and the side of a larger square one and a half meters long. One vertex of the large square is at the center of the small square. The side of the large square cuts two sides of the small square into one- third parts and two-thirds parts. What is the area where the squares overlap?

Similar threads

  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
Replies
1
Views
4K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K