Evaluating the Expectation for $\mu$ and $\hat{\mu}$

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion centers around evaluating the expectation of the absolute difference between a parameter \(\mu\) and its estimator \(\hat{\mu}\) derived from a sample of independent and identically distributed normal random variables. The original poster questions the validity of their conclusion that the expected value of the absolute difference is zero.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to establish that \(E[|\mu - \hat{\mu}|] = 0\) based on the property that \(E[\hat{\mu}] = \mu\), while questioning if indicator functions should be used to address the absolute values. Other participants highlight that \(E(\mu - \hat{\mu}) = 0\) does not imply \(E[|\mu - \hat{\mu}|] = 0\) and inquire about specific conditions under which the expectation could be calculated.

Discussion Status

Participants are exploring the implications of the original poster's reasoning and questioning the assumptions made regarding the expectations. Some suggest that further thought is needed regarding the nature of the random variable involved, while others are looking for references or deeper insights into the calculations of the expectations.

Contextual Notes

There is an ongoing discussion about the use of integration to evaluate the expectation under different conditions of \(\mu\) relative to \(\hat{\mu}\). The conversation reflects uncertainty regarding the treatment of absolute values in expectations and the implications of the properties of random variables.

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Homework Statement


X_{1} , ..., X_{5} \textit{ iid } N( \mu , 1) \textit{ and } \hat{\mu} = \bar{X}
where
L( \mu , \hat{\mu} ) = | \mu - \hat{\mu} |


The Attempt at a Solution



E[ | \mu - \hat{\mu} | ] = 0
since
E(\hat{\mu}) = \mu

Am I missing something? Seems too easy.
Should I be using Indicator functions to handle the absolute values?
Thanks for the help!
 
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##E(\mu - \hat{\mu})=0## does not imply ##E(|\mu - \hat{\mu}|)=0##.
 
Is there a reference you could point me to or a reason why?

Would it be true if
\mu > \hat{\mu}

and for

\mu < \hat{\mu}
E[|\mu - \hat{\mu}|] = \frac{2}{\sqrt{\pi}}


by going through and doing the actual integration.
 
autobot.d said:
Is there a reference you could point me to or a reason why?

Would it be true if
\mu > \hat{\mu}

and for

\mu < \hat{\mu}
E[|\mu - \hat{\mu}|] = \frac{2}{\sqrt{\pi}}


by going through and doing the actual integration.

You don't need a reference; you just need to stop and think for a moment. What kind of random variable Y could have E|Y| = 0?
 

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