Every countably infinite set has a countably infinite set

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SUMMARY

Every infinite set contains a countably infinite subset, as demonstrated through a mapping function. Let A be an infinite set, and define a function f such that for each natural number n, f(n) corresponds to a unique element a_n in A. This function establishes a one-to-one correspondence between the natural numbers and a subset of A, confirming that infinite sets inherently possess countably infinite subsets. The proof is valid and aligns with established mathematical principles.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of set theory concepts, particularly infinite sets
  • Familiarity with functions and mappings in mathematics
  • Knowledge of natural numbers and their properties
  • Basic comprehension of one-to-one and onto functions
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of infinite sets in set theory
  • Learn about different types of functions, including injective and surjective functions
  • Explore the concept of cardinality and its implications in mathematics
  • Investigate examples of countably infinite sets, such as the set of integers
USEFUL FOR

Mathematics students, educators, and anyone interested in set theory and the properties of infinite sets will benefit from this discussion.

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Homework Statement


Show that every infinite set contains a countably infinite set.


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The Attempt at a Solution


Let A be an infinite set

Since A is infinite and not empty, there exists an a∈A
Let f be a mapping such that for all n in ℕ such that f(n)=a_{n} for some a_{n}.

Then f(1)=a_{1}. A is an infinite set, so there exists another element a_{2} that is not a_{1} such that f(2)=a_{2} and so on.

This makes f a 1-1 function.

Since every element of ℕhas an image, the subset generated by f is onto ℕ.

Therefore, since f creates a subset of A, infinite subsets have a countable subset.

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Is this a valid proof on why infinite sets have a countably infinite subset?
 
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Yes, it is. I would rephrases some of the sentences, but in spirit it's correct.
 

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