Every rational number can be written in one way

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SUMMARY

Every positive rational number can be expressed uniquely in the form x = a1 + a2/2! + a3/3! + ... + ak/k!, where a1, a2, ..., ak are integers constrained by specific intervals: 0 ≤ a1, 0 ≤ a2 < 2, ..., 0 ≤ ak < k. The proof involves induction, demonstrating that each fraction has a unique representation in this format. The approach begins by identifying a1 as the largest integer less than or equal to x, followed by recursively determining a2, a3, and so forth, ensuring that the sum converges to the original rational number.

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Homework Statement


Prove that every positive rational number x can be written in ONE way in form
x=a1+ a2/2! + a3/3! + ... + ak/k!
where a1,a2,...,ak are integers and 0<=a1, 0<=a2<2,... ,0<=ak<k
I wrote my solution below. Please check if it is correct and rewrite it for me in a neater way. Thank you!

Homework Equations


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The Attempt at a Solution

I proved by induction a1 > a2/2! > a3/3! > a4/4!>... ak>k! when taking a1,a2,a3,..., ak not= 0 ( I started with 2 as base case since a1 has different interval from them). Can I prove it without induction since I don't use the term before?

Thus I notice that every fraction has a unique interval for a1,a2,a3,...,ak not = 0
and when it is 0, the fraction is 0 and doesn't add up. Thus it is unique

I also need to prove that every rational number can be written in this form. I take x=p/q and I add up the fractions to get that q=k! and p=a1 k!+ a2 k!/2! + ... + ak .
 
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Looks to me like you can just construct it. For any rational number, x, let a_1 be the largest integer less than or equal to x. Then x- a_1&lt; 1 so that 2!(x- a_1)= 2(x- a_1&lt; 2. Let a_2 be the largest integer less than or equal to x- a_1, etc.
 

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