Sometimes it is said that the probability distribution which does not add up to 1 still can be used to find relative probabilities.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

For example, consider probability distribution [itex]p_n = 1/n[/itex] for all natural numbers. Does it make sense to say [itex]n = 1[/itex] is twice as probable as [itex]n=2[/itex], even if total probability does not add up to 1? Or does probabilistic description necessarily require that total probability is 1?

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# Example for divergent probability distribution ?

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