Expansion of Taylor series for statistical functionals

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the expansion of the Taylor series for statistical functionals, specifically the functional θ dependent on a distribution function. The user seeks to expand θ(f_1 + f_2) around f_1 and is uncertain about the derivative-equivalent in this context. Key points include the need for clarity on what constitutes the derivative-equivalent and the role of parameterized transformations in defining derivatives. The conversation highlights the importance of understanding the relationship between distribution functions and their expansions.

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  • Understanding of Taylor series expansions
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  • Knowledge of distribution functions in statistics
  • Basic concepts of Lie groups and transformations
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  • Explore parameterized transformations in the context of functionals
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Testguy
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Hi

By some googling it seems like there exist some kind of expansion of the Taylor series for statistical functionals. I can however, not sort out how it is working and what the derivative-equivalent of the functional actually is.

My situation is that I have a functional, say \theta which depend on the distribution function given to it. I want to expand \theta(f_1 + f_2) around the distribution function f_1. I think it should look like

\theta(f_1(y) + f_2(y)) = \theta(f_1(y)) + \frac{d \theta}{d (something)} *f_2(y) + o(1),

but I do not know what the derivative-equivalent actually is.

What is the definition of this and how can it be calculated in a given situation? Or am I totally out of bounds with such a formula?

Can someone help me or at least point me in the right direction?

Any help is appreciated.
 
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Testguy said:
I want to expand [itex]\theta(f_1 + f_2)[/itex] around the distribution function [itex]f_1[/itex]. I think it should look like

[itex]\theta(f_1(y) + f_2(y)) = \theta(f_1(y)) + \frac{d \theta}{d (something)} *f_2(y) + o(1)[/itex].

Does "distribution function" mean a probability distribution function? If so, wouldn't the argument of [itex]\theta[/itex] have to be [itex]\frac {f_1 + f_2}{2}[/itex] or some other combination that produced a probability density or cumulative probability function?


but I do not know what the derivative-equivalent actually is.

What is the definition of this and how can it be calculated in a given situation? Or am I totally out of bounds with such a formula?

I'm not an expert on functionals, so I can't say whether you are out of bounds. When a Lie group of transformations [itex]T(x,h)[/itex] acts on a set X, it also acts (for a given value of the parameters h) to take a function [itex]f(x)[/itex] to another function [itex]g(x) = f(T(x,h))[/itex]. There are many things known about that scenario. I don't know whether you could arrange for a group to take [itex]f_1[/itex] to [itex]f_1 + f_2[/itex].

It isn't clear what variable's powers appear in the Taylor series that you want and it isn't clear what variable the "o(1)" applies to.

If you define a set of parameterized transformations ( such as [itex]T(f_1,f_2,h) = (1-h) f_1(x) + h (f_1(x) + f_2(x) )[/itex], you might make sense of a derivative with respect to [itex]h[/itex].
 

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