Expectation value of z component of angular momentum for a particle on a ring

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rmjmu507
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I have to find the expectation value of the z component of the angular momentum for a particle on a ring and the expectation value of the z component of the angular momentum squared for a particle on a ring.

The wavefunction is e^((± imx))

I've determined that the expectation value for the z component is -[itex]\hbar[/itex]/m and that the expectation value for the square of the z component is [itex]\hbar[/itex] squared over m squared.

This would mean that the uncertainty in the z component of the angular momentum for a particle on a ring is 0.

Is this correct?
 
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No, the angular momentum should come out as proportional to m. You have to calculate the average value of L_z in this way:

[tex] \langle L_z \rangle = \int \psi^* \hat{L}_z \psi~d\tau[/tex]

where [itex]\tau[/itex] stands for the coordinates of the particle. On a circle, the position of particle is given by just one coordinate, usually angle. Let us denote it by [itex]\varphi[/itex]. It takes values from 0 to 2[itex]\pi[/itex]. In this coordinate, the operator of angular momentum is given by

[itex] \hat{L}_z = i\hbar \frac{\partial }{\partial \varphi}[/itex]

Tha last thing you need is the wave function. You gave [itex]e^{im\varphi}[/itex], but this is not correct wave function because it is not normalized.

The correct function has to satisfy

[tex] \int_0^{2\pi} \psi^* \psi ~d\varphi = 1,[/tex]

so you will have to change your function little bit.
 
I get

[itex]\frac{1}{2π}[/itex][itex]\int[/itex](-i[itex]\hbar[/itex]/im) d[itex]\varphi[/itex] which, integrated over 0 to 2π yields -[itex]\hbar[/itex]/m

following the same procedure, I find the expectation of L[itex]_{z}^{2}[/itex] is -[itex]\hbar^{2}[/itex]/m[itex]^{2}[/itex]

Still the same result