Expectation value of z component of angular momentum for a particle on a ring

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the expectation value of the z component of angular momentum for a particle constrained to move on a ring. The wavefunction provided is e^((± imx)), and participants are exploring the implications of this wavefunction on the calculated expectation values.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are attempting to calculate the expectation values of angular momentum and its square, with some questioning the normalization of the wavefunction and the correctness of the results obtained. There is also a focus on the integration process and the role of the angular momentum operator.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with some participants providing calculations and others questioning the assumptions made regarding the wavefunction and the integration process. There is no explicit consensus on the correctness of the results, and multiple interpretations of the problem are being explored.

Contextual Notes

Participants are discussing the normalization condition for the wavefunction and its implications for the expectation values. There is a concern about the accuracy of the wavefunction used in the calculations.

rmjmu507
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I have to find the expectation value of the z component of the angular momentum for a particle on a ring and the expectation value of the z component of the angular momentum squared for a particle on a ring.

The wavefunction is e^((± imx))

I've determined that the expectation value for the z component is -[itex]\hbar[/itex]/m and that the expectation value for the square of the z component is [itex]\hbar[/itex] squared over m squared.

This would mean that the uncertainty in the z component of the angular momentum for a particle on a ring is 0.

Is this correct?
 
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No, the angular momentum should come out as proportional to m. You have to calculate the average value of L_z in this way:

[tex] \langle L_z \rangle = \int \psi^* \hat{L}_z \psi~d\tau[/tex]

where [itex]\tau[/itex] stands for the coordinates of the particle. On a circle, the position of particle is given by just one coordinate, usually angle. Let us denote it by [itex]\varphi[/itex]. It takes values from 0 to 2[itex]\pi[/itex]. In this coordinate, the operator of angular momentum is given by

[itex] \hat{L}_z = i\hbar \frac{\partial }{\partial \varphi}[/itex]

Tha last thing you need is the wave function. You gave [itex]e^{im\varphi}[/itex], but this is not correct wave function because it is not normalized.

The correct function has to satisfy

[tex] \int_0^{2\pi} \psi^* \psi ~d\varphi = 1,[/tex]

so you will have to change your function little bit.
 
I get

[itex]\frac{1}{2π}[/itex][itex]\int[/itex](-i[itex]\hbar[/itex]/im) d[itex]\varphi[/itex] which, integrated over 0 to 2π yields -[itex]\hbar[/itex]/m

following the same procedure, I find the expectation of L[itex]_{z}^{2}[/itex] is -[itex]\hbar^{2}[/itex]/m[itex]^{2}[/itex]

Still the same result
 
How did you get m into denominator?
 

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