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Yes we should. I got lazy.etotheipi said:Ah, thanks for clarifying! That makes sense. But shouldn't we write the integral as$$\langle \text{Profit}\rangle _{\text{savvy}}= \int_0^{V_m} \frac{1}{V_m} \left( \int_{V}^{V+fV}\dfrac{(n V-B)}{2fV}dB \right) dV$$because the inner integral is not a constant (depends on ##V##) so we can't pull it out of the outer integral?
