avocadogirl Messages 52 Reaction score 0 Thread starter Apr 3, 2010 #1 Why does the laplacian vanish for harmonic functions? Can someone explain this in physical terms?
Rajini Messages 619 Reaction score 4 Apr 3, 2010 #2 I guess..answers for the Laplace eqn. are harmonic functions..so to find such solution one will equate to zero. (Laplace eqn. is already equated to zero). This is my guess..
I guess..answers for the Laplace eqn. are harmonic functions..so to find such solution one will equate to zero. (Laplace eqn. is already equated to zero). This is my guess..