Explicit form of scalar propagator

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the explicit form of the Feynman propagator for massless scalar fields, focusing on the derivation process and the mathematical intricacies involved. Participants explore various approaches to derive the propagator without relying on the massive case limit.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents a derivation of the Feynman propagator and questions the integration process, noting a potential divergence at infinity.
  • Another participant suggests making a change of variables to simplify the integration, but the original poster expresses uncertainty about its effectiveness.
  • A different participant proposes multiplying the integrand by an exponential decay factor to manage divergence and then taking the limit as the factor approaches zero.
  • The original poster acknowledges this suggestion but seeks clarification on how the resulting expression can be interpreted as Cauchy's principal value.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus on the integration techniques or the interpretation of the results, indicating multiple competing views and unresolved questions regarding the derivation process.

Contextual Notes

There are unresolved mathematical steps related to the integration limits and the treatment of divergences. The discussion highlights dependence on specific assumptions about the behavior of integrals at infinity.

parton
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Hi!

I have encountered a little problem. I want to show
that the explicit form of the Feynman propagator for massless scalar fields is given by:

<br /> \begin{align}<br /> G_F(x) &amp; = - \lim_{\epsilon \to +0} \int \dfrac{\mathrm{d}^{4}k}{(2 \pi)^{4}} \dfrac{1}{k^{2} + i \epsilon} \mathrm{e}^{- i k x} <br /> \\<br /> &amp; = - \lim_{\epsilon \to +0} \dfrac{1}{4 \pi^{2}} \dfrac{1}{x^{2} -i \epsilon} <br /> \end{align}<br />

And I would like to do that directly, i.e., without starting from the massive case and considering the limit m \to 0.

I found a script where one can find a derivation of that result,

http://mo.pa.msu.edu/phy853/lectures/lectures.pdf

on pages 58-59.

There, the integration is split up into the imaginary and real part.

But for the imaginary part, the author finds:

<br /> \begin{align}<br /> G_F,i(x) &amp; = \dfrac{1}{4 \pi^{2} r} \int_{0}^{\infty} \mathrm{d}k \cos(k x_{0}) \sin(k r)<br /> \\<br /> &amp; = \dfrac{1}{16 \pi^{2} r i} \int_{0}^{\infty} \mathrm{d}k \left[ \mathrm{e}^{ik(x_{0}+r)} - \mathrm{e}^{-ik(x_{0}+r)} + \mathrm{e}^{-ik(x_{0}-r)} - \mathrm{e}^{ik(x_{0}-r)} \right]<br /> \\<br /> &amp; = - \frac{1}{8 \pi^{2} r} \left[ \dfrac{1}{x_{0} + r} - \dfrac{1}{x_{0} - r} \right]<br /> \\<br /> &amp; = - \frac{1}{4 \pi^{2} x^{2}}<br /> \end{align}<br />

Here, I don't understand how the integration is performed. I think if you integrate every exponential term it will diverge at \infty, but somehow the author ends up with a finite term.

Does anyone understand what is going on here?

Furthermore, I think we should end up with Cauchy's principal value and not just 1/x^2, right?

Maybe, someone has a more "elegant" way of deriving the massless propagator?
 
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Make a change of variables k'=ik or k'=-ik as needed
 
dauto said:
Make a change of variables k'=ik or k'=-ik as needed

Thank you for your hint, but somehow I don't see how that could help.
If I make the substitution k&#039; = i k I find:

<br /> \begin{align}<br /> \int_{0}^{\infty} \mathrm{d}k &amp; \left[ \mathrm{e}^{ik(x_{0}+r)} - \mathrm{e}^{-ik(x_{0}+r)} + \mathrm{e}^{-ik(x_{0}-r)} - \mathrm{e}^{ik(x_{0}-r)} \right] =<br /> \\<br /> &amp; = -i \int_{0}^{i \infty} \mathrm{d}k \left[ \mathrm{e}^{k(x_{0}+r)} - \mathrm{e}^{-k(x_{0}+r)} + \mathrm{e}^{-k(x_{0}-r)} - \mathrm{e}^{k(x_{0}-r)} \right]<br /> \\<br /> &amp; = -i \left[ \dfrac{1}{x_{0} + r} \left( \mathrm{e}^{k(x_{0}+r)} + \mathrm{e}^{-k(x_{0}+r)} \right) - \dfrac{1}{x_{0} - r} \left( \mathrm{e}^{k(x_{0}-r)} + \mathrm{e}^{-k(x_{0}-r)} \right) \right] \Bigg|_{0}^{i \infty}<br /> \\<br /> &amp; = -2 i \left[ \dfrac{1}{x_{0} + r} \mathrm{cosh}(k (x_{0} + r)) - \dfrac{1}{x_{0} - r} \mathrm{cosh}(k(x_{0}-r)) \right] \Bigg|_{0}^{i \infty}<br /> \end{align}<br />

And this will diverge for k \to i \infty.

Do you have an idea to resolve this problem?
 
Multiply integrand by \exp(-\alpha k), integrate it and then take limit of \alpha as zero.
\alpha is real and positive.
 
Ravi Mohan said:
Multiply integrand by \exp(-\alpha k), integrate it and then take limit of \alpha as zero.
\alpha is real and positive.

OK, thanks a lot :smile:. This seems to work.

But what I still not undestand is: Why can the result - \dfrac{1}{4 \pi^{2} x^{2}} be undestood as Cauchy's principal value?
 

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