Hi. I notice that some values of X on the exponential distribution PDF have a value of around 1. I understand the integral ends up being one, since those values of X are less than 1. But P(X) at those points still gets to 1, or thereabouts. How does that make sense, that the probability of a value, say 0.00001, is about 1, and the others complete the integral to 1?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

I hope this question makes sense.

Thank you.

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# Exponential distribution question

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