F has a primitive on D ⊂ ℂ ⇒ ∫f = 0 along any closed curve in D?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the function f(z)=\frac{z}{(z-1)(z+1)} defined on the domain ℂ\[-1,1]. It concludes that the integral of f(z) along any closed curve in this domain, specifically the circle of radius two centered at the origin, evaluates to 2πi, as shown by the Residue Theorem. This result indicates that f(z) does not possess a primitive in ℂ\[-1,1], confirming the equivalence of the statements regarding the existence of a primitive and the non-zero integral along closed curves.

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Poopsilon
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Given the domain ℂ\[-1,1] and the function, [itex]f(z)=\frac{z}{(z-1)(z+1)}[/itex], defined on this domain, the Residue Theorem shows that for [itex]\alpha[/itex] a positive parametrization of the circle of radius two centered at the origin, that:

[tex]\int_{\alpha}f(z)=\int_{\alpha}\frac{z}{(z-1)(z+1)} = 2\pi i[/tex]

Can I automatically conclude from this that [itex]f(z)=\frac{z}{(z-1)(z+1)}[/itex] does not have a primitive in ℂ\[-1,1]?

I already know it's true the other way, so I'm suspecting that these two statements in the title are equivalent.

(Note, this is the contrapositive of the title)
 
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yep. that's how you do it. having a primitive makes it possible to evaluate the integral by evaluating the primitive at both ends of the curve and subtracting, so you get zero if those two ends are the same. So actually you are asking it in the trivial direction. The other direction is harder.
 
Ok you that makes complete sense, thanks mathwonk.
 

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