Factorization Theorem for Sufficient Statistics & Indicator Function

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The discussion centers on demonstrating that the maximum of a random sample from a uniform distribution is a sufficient statistic for the parameter theta using the factorization theorem. Participants express confusion regarding the equality of indicator functions and whether they should include additional factors to account for the smallest observation. It is clarified that the indicator function I_{[0,\theta)}(y_{(n)}) is solely a function of the maximum observation, y_{(n)}, since theta is treated as a fixed parameter. The conversation also explores the nature of functions in relation to their parameters and constraints, questioning whether functions should be considered in terms of both the variables and the conditions imposed on them. Overall, the thread emphasizes the complexities of understanding sufficient statistics and indicator functions in statistical theory.
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Problem:
Let Y1,Y2,...,Yn denote a random sample from the uniform distribution over the interval (0,theta). Show that Y(n)=max(Y1,Y2,...,Yn) is a sufficient statistic for theta by the factorization theorem.

Solution:
http://www.geocities.com/asdfasdf23135/stat10.JPG
1) While I understand that IA (x)IB (x)=IA intersect B (x), I don't understand the equality circled in red above.

In the solutions, they say that I0,theta (y1)...I0,theta (yn)=I0,theta (y(n)). Is this really correct?
Shouldn't the right hand side be I0,theta (y(n))I0,infinity (y(1)) ? I believe that the second factor is necessary because the largest observation is greater than zero does not guarantee that the smallest observation is greater than zero.
Which one is correct?


2) Also, is I0,theta (y(n)) a function of y(n), a function of theta, or a function of both y(n) and theta?
If it is a function of both y(n) and theta, then there is something that I don't understand. Following the definition of indicator function that IA (x) is a function of x alone (it is a function of only the stuff in the parenthesis), shouldn't I0,theta (y(n)) be a function of only y(n) alone?


Thank you for explaining! I've been confused with these ideas for at least a week.
 
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The left side of

<br /> \prod_{i=1}^n I_{[0,\theta)} (y_i) = I_{[0,\theta)} (y_{(n)})<br />

means that all the y_i values are in the interval [0,\theta).

This is true if, and only if, the maximum of the y's is in the same interval, and that is the meaning of the right-side.

The indicator I_{[0,\theta)} (y_{(n)}) is a function of y_{(n)} only, since \theta is fixed (it's a parameter).
 
I understand that
0<X_1,..., X_n<theta here these are the unordered data
is the same as (iff)
0<X_(1)<X_(2)<...<X_(n)<theta

But I don't think
0<X_(1)<X_(2)<...<X_(n)<theta
is EQUIVALENT to (iff)
0<X_(n)<theta
The => direction is true but <= is not. (the fact that the largest observation x(n) is greater than zero does not guarantee that the smallest observation x(1) is greater than zero.)

So that's why I think we should have
I0,theta(y1)...I0,theta(yn) = I0,theta(y(n))I0,infinity(y(1))
instead of I0,theta(y1)...I0,theta(yn)=I0,theta(y(n)).

Right?
 
Last edited:
statdad said:
The indicator I_{[0,\theta)} (y_{(n)}) is a function of y_{(n)} only, since \theta is fixed (it's a parameter).

But we can also write it as I y(n), inf (theta), in this case theta would be in the parenthesis, so in this case, would it be a function of theta alone? (in the gerenal case, f(x) means a function of x, f(y) means a function of y, the stuff in the parenthesis)


When we talk about functions, is it always only a function of the stuff in the parenthesis? It looks like that the restrictions/constraints are also important, so shouldn't it be a function also of the variables in the restrictions/constraints?

e.g.)
f(x)=x if x>y
f(x)=x^3 if x<y
Here not only the value of x controls f, the value of y also controls f, so is f a function of BOTH x and y here?

Thanks!
 
The standard _A " operator" maps a Null Hypothesis Ho into a decision set { Do not reject:=1 and reject :=0}. In this sense ( HA)_A , makes no sense. Since H0, HA aren't exhaustive, can we find an alternative operator, _A' , so that ( H_A)_A' makes sense? Isn't Pearson Neyman related to this? Hope I'm making sense. Edit: I was motivated by a superficial similarity of the idea with double transposition of matrices M, with ## (M^{T})^{T}=M##, and just wanted to see if it made sense to talk...

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